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Passed Avaya 3202 Exam with Pass4sure and Lead2pass PDF & VCE (31-40)

QUESTION 31
Which three are options for viewing historical data under Reports and Monitors? (Choose three)

A.    Last hour
B.    Last 24 hours
C.    Last 30 days
D.    Last six months
E.    Last year

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
http://198.152.212.23/css/P8/documents/100164164 (page 45)

QUESTION 32
Where can the alert threshold settings for the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 be modified?

A.    Monitoring and Reporting
B.    Key Performance Indicators
C.    OAM Profiles
D.    Feature Server Elements

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. On Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7, where can the information on Media Server Sessions be found?

image

A.    Log into Provisioning Manger, and see media resources option.
B.    Log into Web Conferencing Server, and download from Document Library.
C.    Log into Element Manager Console, under Media Servers and cluster tree expand Media Server
for the options.
D.    Log into Doc Server and download.

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
To pull reports on all currently active and past SIP session information on an Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 bridge, which action can an Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 administrator or maintenance person perform?

A.    Log into EM console, expand the Feature Server Elements tree, and look under the Media Servers
and Cluster tree options.
B.    Log into EM console, expand the Feature Server Elements tree, and look under the Database
tree options.
C.    Log into EM console, expand the Features Server Elements tree, and look under the Accounting
Managers tree options.
D.    Log into EM console, expand the key Performance Indicators tree, and look under the Monitoring
and Reporting.

Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. On a bridge using the Key Performance Indicator (KPI) Monitoring and Reporting option, where is the information on Media Network Bandwidth Usage for currently Active Calls located?

image

A.    Under the Locations TAB
B.    Under the General TAB
C.    Under the Sessions TAB
D.    Under the Web Conferencing TAB

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which two statements about Active and Hot Standby servers are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Active and Hot Standby Servers will have two different IP addresses.
B.    Active and Hot Standby Servers will have the same IP address.
C.    The Application Server will have the same IP address for both servers.
D.    The Application Server will have two different IP addresses.

Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Where can you Stop/Start the media Server and see the current status in Element Manager Console?

A.    Servers – EMServer (X) – NE Maintenance
B.    Feature Server Elements – Media Servers and Clusters – Media Servers – MediaServer(x) – NE Maintenance
C.    Feature Server Elements – media Servers and Media Servers – MediaServerCluster(X) – NE Maintenance
D.    Feature Server Elements – Provisioning manager – PROV(X) – MediaServer(X) – NE Maintenance

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://198.152.212.23/css/P8/documents/100164163 (page 207)

QUESTION 38
When viewing alarms in the browser, what is the default order that alarms appear?

A.    Warning, Minor, Major, Critical
B.    Major, Critical, Minor, Warning
C.    Minor, Warning, Critical, Major
D.    Critical, Major, Minor, Warning

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://198.152.212.23/css/P8/documents/100164163 (page 18, see alarm summary bar)

QUESTION 39
You downloaded the following from PLDS:
MCP_15.0.10.4_2012-06-08-1605.zip.
The Element Manager Console indicates the client bridge is running version MCP_15.0.10.1_2012- 02-25-1355.
Which command will install this file?

A.    patchPlatform.p1
B.    mcpUpgradeMR.p1
C.    mcpPatch.p1
D.    mcpRelease.p1

Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Avaya Aura?Midsize Enterprise, Avaya Aura?Communication Manager, Avaya Aura® Session Manager, and Avaya Aura?System Manager and communication Server 1000, are all supported audio and video servers. What is the minimum software version of Avaya Aura?System Manager that is required with Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system?

A.    Version 6.1
B.    Version 6.2
C.    Version 7.0
D.    Version 7.2

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
An end user wants to dial into the bridge with the DNIS number, and be connected into the conference room, or be prompted to enter the conference pin code. Which action is necessary to configure the conference bridge dial-in number (DNIS or Calls Branding)?

A.    Log on to Element Manager Console and configure it under media Server.
B.    Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure it under Service URI.
C.    Log on to Collaboration Agent and configure it in the roster window.
D.    Log on to Provisioning manager and configure it under management.

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
In /var/mcp/oss/acct/AM1/All/MCPV5/AS1_0, which extension do the most recent log files have?

A.    Active
B.    Closed
C.    Current
D.    Live

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What does the install script do during installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software?

A.    It prompts you to enter the serial number of the server on which you are installing the software.
B.    It auto-detects the hardware type of the server.
C.    It lists the choices of different hardware types that can be used.
D.    It lists the choices of different operating systems that can be used.

Answer: B

QUESTION 24
To setup a conference call on Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7, which three tasks are required? (Choose three)

A.    Configure the domain, location, Media Server, and service URI on Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7.
B.    Configure the user’s soft client on their PC.
C.    Configure a SIP entity, SIP entity link, routing policy, and dial pattern on System Manager.
D.    Configure users on System Manager to have a conferencing profile.
E.    Configure TLS between Avaya Session Manager and the Media Server.

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 25
During a web conference, which two functionalities can a moderator use with DCS not running? (Choose two)

A.    Upload and share a .JPG picture, Word, and PowerPoint documents.
B.    Perform chat, and record meeting notes.
C.    Share full or part of the Moderator Desktop.
D.    Pass remote desktop control to other participants.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 26
When configuring a SIP Entity for Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7, which two fields are used by the system Manager to enable communication with other SIP Entities? (Choose two)

A.    Trusted
B.    Port
C.    Transport protocol
D.    Name

Answer: BD

QUESTION 27
What is the script that is used to install Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software?

A.    pkginstall
B.    accInstaller
C.    mcpInstaller
D.    Installmcp

Answer: C

QUESTION 28
An administrator has a new license file for Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7. Which step should the administrator take to install the new license file?

A.    Log onto the Communications Manager CDOM, then go to license and copy and paste the new
license file.
B.    Log onto the Conferencing 7, then go to Element Manager and upload the new license file.
C.    Log onto System Manager, then go to License and upload the new license file.
D.    Log onto the System Manager CDOM, then go to Security and copy and paste the new license file.

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
To have a trust relationship between Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 and System Manager, what must an administrator make in Element Manager?

A.    An enrollment request for EM and PROV, and then add the HTTPS certificate to the EM and PROV elements
B.    An enablement TLS for all the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP entities
C.    An enablement TLS for all the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 elements
D.    An enablement request for CA and PROV, and then the HTTPS certificate to the CA and PROV elements

Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A moderator would like to reuse PowerPoint slides that were previously presented on another web conference. Which procedure does the moderator need to perform?

A.    Upload the PowerPoint slides to the web conference Document Library from a web conference
participant’s PC workstation.
B.    Download the PowerPoint slides from the Document Conversion Server into the moderator’s PC,
and share the desktop.
C.    Selects one of the old PowerPoint Slide available readily from the moderator’s Document Server
Library on the web conference, and share it.
D.    The moderator realizes no PowerPoint slides are available in the Library on the web conference,
and decides to restart the PC to fix the issue.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
Which two parameters can be defined for a location using Provisioning Manager? (Choose tw0)

A.    an alternate hosting location if the location is not suitable for hosting conferences
B.    maximum WAN bandwidth allowed for the location
C.    Media Cascading options for the location
D.    Time zone for the location

Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
A technician wants to configure security between Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 and System Manager.
What is the first step in configuring security?

A.    Log onto Element Manager and set the session password.
B.    Log onto Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 and set the enrollment password.
C.    Log onto System Manager and set the enrollment password.
D.    Log onto System Manager and set the session password.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
During installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software, which prompt will the installer receive?

A.    The staging username
B.    The deployment type or staging file to be used
C.    The operations file be used
D.    The operations file or deployment name to be used

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
When installing the operating system for Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7, and having turned on the hardware, what must the administrator do to start the installation?

A.    At the boot prompt type start install
B.    At the boot prompt press the Enter key.
C.    At the boot prompt type install-kvm and press the Enter key.
D.    At the boot prompt type install-mcp and press the Enter key.

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
The conferencing moderator dialed into the conference room successfully using moderator code, and was also able to successfully launch Collaboration Agent. However, the web conference could not be launched from the Collaboration Agent. What is causing this problem?

A.    During the conference user provisioning, the conference administrator did not enable the Web
Conferencing Server feature specific to this user.
B.    The web conferencing URL was not added to the hosts file on the Media Server.
C.    The Web Conference Server Was not added or configured in Provisioning manager.
D.    The Document Conversation Server was not configured.

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which SIP Monitoring field must be selected to allow the System Manager to manage bandwidth on the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP Entity?

A.    SIP Link Monitoring
B.    Supports Call Admission Control
C.    Primary Session Manager Bandwidth Association
D.    SIP Domain

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A technician is installing Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 for the first time, and has acquired the proper hardware needed for the system installation. What would be the next step in the installation?

A.    Install Windows 2003.
B.    Install off the shell Red Hat Linux.
C.    Install Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 Core Linux Platform.
D.    Install the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software.

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 operating system is installed, it creates pre-configured users with a default password. What must an administrator complete after the installation?

A.    Change the passwords on first login.
B.    Change the admin password only.
C.    Change the admin and root passwords.
D.    Change the root password only.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
On the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system, which two actions are involved in configuring the Media Server and Media Server cluster? (Choose two)

A.    Log onto Provisioning Manager and configure it under "Conference of Service".
B.    Log onto the EM console, and configure it in the sub menu "Media Server Resource" under the Feature
Server Elements.
C.    Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure "Media Server Resource" under System Management Tab.
D.    Log onto WCS server and configure the Media Resource in the Collaboration Agent window.

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What is the License file for Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 based on?

A.    The Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 MAC address
B.    The MAC address of the Session manager with which Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 is associated
C.    The MAC address of the System manager with which Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 associated
D.    The Media Server Mac address

Answer: A

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Passed Avaya 3202 Exam with Pass4sure and Lead2pass PDF & VCE (1-10)

QUESTION 1
After an Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 installation and configuration, the first test call into the bridge through Session Manager generates a 404 SIP Response message. Which missing configuration on Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 is causing this problem?

A.    The web conference URI not populated on Provisioning Manager.
B.    The SIP Trunk is not up between Session Manager and Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7
C.    The Service URI for the calling number is not configured on the Provisioning Manager.
D.    The conference users are not provisioned on System Manager.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What does the extension -active at the end of the log file name indicate?

A.    The log is currently closed.
B.    The log is the most recent log file.
C.    The log has been previously opened.
D.    The log is obsolete.

Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What is the requirement for Avaya Media Servers to be grouped into an Avaya Media Server Cluster?

A.    They must share the system default setting.
B.    They must share common power supply.
C.    They must share the same physical location.
D.    They must share the same server name.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
In which location is the FQDN for the WCS on the Element manager Console configured?

A.    Element Manager – Address
B.    Element Manager – External Nodes
C.    Element Manager – Servers
D.    Feature Server Elements ?Web conferencing

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
All new SIP users of Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 conference bridges are administered on which Avaya Aura® component or network element?

A.    Communication Manager
B.    Session Manager
C.    System Manager
D.    Presence Server

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. When logging into the Collaboration Agent, which password field is used to authenticate the user?

image

A.    On the System Manager web console admin login and password
B.    On the System Manager under user Profile – Communication Profile Communication Profile Password
C.    On the System Manager under user Profile – Identity – Password
D.    On the Session Manager SSH login and password

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which command is used to add the WCS FQDN to each of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 servers?

A.    hostTableConfig <IP_Address> <FQDN>
B.    hostTableConfig -d <IP_Address> <FQDN>
C.    hostTableConfig -a <IP_Address> <FQDN>
D.    hostTableConfig -q <IP_Address> <FQDN>

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two configuration parameters will determine whether video will be used in a conference? (Choose two)

A.    the Media Cascading option in System Default Settings
B.    the Video option in the conference profile of the moderator
C.    the Bandwidth management option in System Default Settings
D.    the Video Option in the CM endpoint profile of the users

Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You want to find the threshold configured in the system for minor, major, and critical alarms for Jitter (ms) on the Element Manager. Under which folder are the Alert Threshold found?

A.    Key Performance Indicators
B.    OAM Profiles – log Filters
C.    Feature Server Elements – Application Servers
D.    Feature Server Elements – Media Servers and Clusters

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are the two configurable options available for Media Cascading? (Choose two)

A.    The conference domain settings
B.    The Media Server Cluster level
C.    The hosting location level
D.    The user conference profile level

Answer: CD

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2014 Latest Pass4sure&Lead2pass Avaya 3107 Dumps (41-50)

QUESTION 41
What do Media Interfaces define?

A.    The IP addresses and ports for media
B.    The IP addresses and URIs
C.    The RTP and TCP ports for media
D.    The TLS and RTP ports for media

Answer: A

QUESTION 42
What are the essential steps to administer a Signaling Interface?

A.    Add signaling interface, and assign to Interworking Profile.
B.    Add media interface, and assign to signaling interface.
C.    Add media interface, and assign to Server Flow.
D.    Add signaling interface, and assign IP addresses and ports.

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Which entity can also function as the Personal Profile Manager (PPM) for a Remote worker cluster?

A.    System Platform
B.    Session Manager
C.    Communication Manager
D.    System Manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 44
In which two flows are Signaling Interfaces administered in SIP trunking?

A.    NTP server and DNS server
B.    Dell server and HP server
C.    Trunk server and call server
D.    Call server and TFTP server

Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Which of the SBC administrative accounts has the greatest system access and null privileges?

A.    System
B.    Admin
C.    Manager
D.    Supervisor

Answer: B

QUESTION 46
In addition to logging in to the SBCE GUI (Dashboard), what is another way to verify a standalone SBC installation?

A.    Ping the call server
B.    Ping the trunk server
C.    Log into the EMS CLI
D.    Log into the SBC CLI

Answer: D

QUESTION 47
How many networks are subnets are required to commission the SBC and implement SIP trunking on an SBC located in the DMZ?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    4

Answer: D

QUESTION 48
When installing either configuration on the same hardware, which statement describes the relationship between the standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS ( all-in-one )?

A.    The standalone SBC software is the same as the SBC + EMS ( all-in-one ) software.
B.    The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS ( all-in-one ) must be controlled by the same EMS.
C.    The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS ( all-in-one ) are identical, regardless of hardware platform.
D.    The standalone SBC requires a different EMS from the SBC + EMS ( all-in-one ).

Answer: A

QUESTION 49
Which Installation type should you choose for a standalone (all-in one) configuration?

A.    EMS + UC-Sec
B.    EMS
C.    UC-Sec
D.    NTP + UC-Sec

Answer: A

QUESTION 50
Why can you not select an Installation type of EMS + UC-Sec for a high Availability (duplicated) configuration?

A.    The EMS has too few interfaces for High Availability.
B.    The SBC has too few Interfaces for High Availability.
C.    EMS and UC-Sec have- different interfaces and are incompatible with High Availability.
D.    High Availability configurations always require a separate (standalone) EMS.

Answer: D

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2014 Latest Pass4sure&Lead2pass Avaya 3107 Dumps (31-40)

QUESTION 31
What is the Received Interfaced that is defined in Call Server Flow administration?

A.    It is an external interface that rebroadcasts outbound traffic
B.    It is an external interface that receives inbound traffic.
C.    It is an internal interface that rebroadcasts outbound traffic.
D.    It is an internal interface that receives inbound traffic.

Answer: D

QUESTION 32
What do Server Profiles define?

A.    The connection and transport parameters from the SBC to the service provider and to the SAL gateway.
B.    The connection and transport parameters from the SBC to the service provider and to the call
C.    The signaling and media parameters f.om the SBC to the call server and to the NTP server
D.    The signaling and media parameters from the SBC to the service provider and the call server

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
To which two entities does a Server Profile apply?

A.    The Dell server and HP server
B.    The trunk server and call server
C.    The NTP server and DNS server
D.    The call server and TFTP server

Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the SBC administrative accounts has the least system access and privileges?

A.    Supervisor
B.    Admin
C.    Manager
D.    System

Answer: A

QUESTION 35
What call procedure ensures that the SBC is configured properly for SIP trunking?

A.    Ensure that the trunk server and call server both provide dial tone.
B.    Make an external-to-internal test call only.
C.    Make an internal-to-external test call only.
D.    Make both internal-to-external and external-to-internal test calls.

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
For Enterprise SBC customers integrated with Communication Manager or Communication Server 1000, which remote access connection model do they use?

A.    SSL VPN
B.    Secure Access Link (SAL)
C.    Modem
D.    No remote access / alarming

Answer: B

QUESTION 37
What are the three essential elements of a SIP trunk?

A.    SIP service provider, SBC, call server (IP-PBX)
B.    SBC, media gateway, call server (IP-PBX)
C.    SIP service provider, SBC, media gateway
D.    SBC, media gateway, trunk server

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
You have been asked to create and apply a Time of Day (ToD) domain policy to secure a SIP trunk. What is the correct order of the policy application sequence?

A.    Packet examined, destination evaluated, ToD evaluated, policy applied
B.    Packet examined, ToD evaluated, flow determined, policy applied
C.    Packet examined, ToD evaluated, policy applied, routing applied
D.    packet examined, flow determined, policy applied, ToD evaluated

Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which statement describes the best practice regarding the security features for the Avaya SBC Remote Worker configuration?

A.    Only signaling is fully encrypted.
B.    Only media is fully encrypted.
C.    Both signaling and media are fully encrypted.
D.    Neither signaling nor media are fully encrypted.

Answer: C

QUESTION 40
To alter how the enterprise network appears to the outside world, which type of SBC administration will change the SIP message parameters?

A.    Server Flow
B.    Server Profile
C.    Signaling Interfaces
D.    Topology Hiding

Answer: D

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2014 Latest Pass4sure&Lead2pass Avaya 3107 Dumps (21-30)

QUESTION 21
In which interface can you view current SBC system alarms?

A.    SBC CLI
B.    SBC GUI
C.    System Platform
D.    System Manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 22
After upgrading an EMS server, what does it mean when the SBCs under its control show their status as Orphaned ?

A.    The updated EMS software cannot read the SBC software version.
B.    The updated EMS software cannot see or recognize the SBC servers.
C.    The SBC software version is out of synch with EMS.
D.    The SBCs are no longer under the control of that EMS.

Answer: C

QUESTION 23
When performing an upgrade on a High Availability system, in which order do you upgrade the servers?

A.    EMS, secondary SBC, primary SBC
B.    Primary SBC, secondary SBC, EMS
C.    Secondary SBC, primary SBC, EMS
D.    EMS, primary SBC, secondary SBC

Answer: A

QUESTION 24
What is an example of an availability attack?

A.    Eavesdropping
B.    Identify spoofing
C.    Man-in-the-middle
D.    Denial of service

Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What does deploying the Avaya Session Border Controller Enterprise (SBCE) in the DMZ mean?

A.    The SBCE is inside the trusted network.
B.    The SBCE is the outer, untrusted network.
C.    The SBCE is in the neutral, demarcation point between the trusted and untrusted networks.
D.    The SBCE is the middle of the traffic between the call server and the service provider.

Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which configuration requires a separate (standalone) Element Management System (EMS)?

A.    SBC is inside the DMZ
B.    SBC is inside the enterprise core
C.    High Availability
D.    All SBCs, all configuration

Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Where can the Avaya Session Border Controller be deployed?

A.    Inside the enterprise core only
B.    Outside the enterprise core only
C.    Inside the DMZ
D.    Both inside the enterprise core or in the DMZ

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which functionality is added in the licensed Advanced Services add-on?

A.    Mobile Workspace (remote worker)
B.    Network Address Translation (NAT)
C.    Call Admission Control (CAC)
D.    SIP trunking

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What is the pre-requisite starting point for configuring Session Broker Controller (SBC) SIP trunking?

A.    SBC already installed and Registered
B.    SBC already installed and Provisioned
C.    SBC already installed and Commissioned
D.    SBC already installed (wizard run)

Answer: C

QUESTION 30
What can a Topology Hiding Profile hide?

A.    Source and destination FQDNs
B.    Source and destination IP addresses
C.    Source and destination transport protocol
D.    Source and destination codec selection

Answer: B

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2014 Latest Pass4sure&Lead2pass Avaya 3107 Dumps (11-20)

QUESTION 11
In general, under which condition is an SBC alarm triggered?

A.    System level failures
B.    Any software process restart in SBC
C.    Any hardware failure such as link down, disk usage, etc.
D.    All high availability cases

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which troubleshooting capability is useful for monitoring a single telephone (URI)?

A.    Trace > Packet Capture?
B.    Diagnostics > Ping Test
C.    Trace > Call Trace
D.    Statistics > Server Flow

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which type of information describes a SBC call trace?

A.    Payload information: voice, video, or data
B.    Signaling level information for a given URI
C.    Application information (for example Wireshark, traceSM)
D.    Network topology information

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
In general, SBC incidents indicate what kind of problem?

A.    Hardware
B.    Operating system
C.    Application (SBC) software
D.    Visualization layer

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
How do you view SBC Call Trace information?

A.    SBC GUI: Diagnostics, Protocol tab
B.    SBC CLI
C.    EMS GUI: Log Viewer, option = logs
D.    EMS GUI: Logs > System Logs, Class = Trace

Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which file is a manually created backup?

A.    …6.2.0.Qnn.zip
B.    …snapshot.zip
C.    …6.2.0.Qnn.xls
D.    …backup.zip

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Where can you find details of SBC operational problems?

A.    System Incidents
B.    System Failures
C.    Topology Hiding
D.    System Platform
E.    Server Configuration

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Where can you look up SBC alarm descriptions?

A.    SBC CLI
B.    Avaya PLDS
C.    SBC Documentation: Appendices of Administration Guide
D.    EMS CLI

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which condition can alert you of a problem with the SBC?

A.    Optical drive tray open
B.    Flashing reset button
C.    LCD display
D.    LEDs: link status/activity, hard disk drive access, over-temperature

Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Where can Session Border Controller (SBC) backups be stored?

A.    Only on removable media
B.    Locally only
C.    Remotely only
D.    Locally and remotely

Answer: D

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2014 Latest Pass4sure&Lead2pass Avaya 3107 Dumps (1-10)

QUESTION 1
What kind and how many routing profiles are required for a SIP trunk?

A.    One: defines complete end-to-end routing map
B.    Two: from call server to trunk server; from trunk server to call server
C.    Three: from call server to trunk server; from FMS to both call server and trunk server
D.    Four: from call server to trunk server; from trunk server to call server, from EMS to both call and
trunk server

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the pre requisite starting point for implementing SBC Remote Worker?

A.    When Avaya SBCE has been installed and registered
B.    When Avaya SBCE has been installed and commissioned
C.    When Avaya SBCE + Advanced Feature Set has been installed and registered
D.    When Avaya SBCE + Advanced Feature Set has been installed and commission

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
As part of the Mobile Workspace (Remote Worker) administration, what does cluster administration do?

A.    It groups trunks and monitors thorn for load balancing.
B.    It groups endpoints and monitors them for traffic shaping.
C.    It groups trunks and applies similar rules and policies.
D.    It groups endpoints and applies similar attributes to them.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is the function of the SBC routing profile?

A.    It defines the SIP domain.
B.    It defines the destination URI.
C.    It defines the next hop for SIP traffic.
D.    It defines the complete destination route.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Where do you implement the restriction that equipment can make calls only during a defined period of the day?

A.    Routing Profile
B.    Domain Polity Administration
C.    Topology Hiding Profile
D.    Signaling Interface

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
The site survey gathers what kind of information?

A.    Configuration, topology, IP addresses
B.    Network bandwidth test results
C.    Customer readiness data
D.    Server models

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In the EMS GUI, how do you identify the standby Session Border Controller (SBC) in a High Availability configuration?

A.    By SBC serial number
B.    By SBC model
C.    By SBC network passphr.ise
D.    By SBC name

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Why is the DB9-to-DB9 or the RJ45-terminated serial cable that is shipped with the SBC necessary for installing the SBC?

A.    The duplication cable between the two series synchronizes function and data.
B.    It carries the trunk side Ethernet traffic.
C.    It carries the call server (line) side Ethernet traffic.
D.    It connects SBC Console with the service laptop/PC for initial software installation.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
In a High Availability (duplicated SBC) configuration, which interfaces carry the heartbeat information?

A.    A1 to A1
B.    B1 to B1
C.    A1 to B1
D.    M2 to M2

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You have successfully installed the Session Broker Controller Enterprise (SBCE) and want to log in to the CLI.
Which port and protocol must you use for CLI access?

A.    SCP, port 80
B.    SSH, port 222
C.    SSH, port 22
D.    TLS, port 5060

Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Q & A: 93 Q&As

QUESTION 1
How frequently does the Profiled Endpoints dashlet refresh data?
A. every 30 seconds
B. every 60 seconds
C. every 2 minutes
D. every 5 minutes
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
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A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following
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– The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on
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What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Answer: B

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