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Latest EMC E22-290 Dumps

EMC Data Domain Deduplication, Backup and Recovery Exam: E22-290 Exam

  • E22-290 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E22-290
  • Exam Name: EMC Data Domain Deduplication, Backup and Recovery Exam
  • Q & A: 120 Q&As

1.What is a benefit of snapshots on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Requires ndisk space to store
B.Provides NDMP backups ta remote site
C.Included with the replication license
D.Provides data restoration from a specific point in time for deleted data
Answer: D

2.An EMC Data Domain customer has setup a DVTL for their backup software.They created slots, drives, and tapes.The backup software shows the tape drives and the robot, but not the tapes Which step was missed on the Data Domain system?
A.Tape labels are not defined
B.Configure Fibre Channel LUN masking
C.Incorrect media type is defined
D.Import the virtuel tapes in the VTL
Answer: D

3.A customer is attempting tcreate a read-only copy of their backup data on an EMC Data Domain system tachieve additional protection.Which Data Domain system feature would accomplish this requirement?
A.Snapshot
B.Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.Fastcopy
D.Retention Lock
Answer: A

4.A customer is currently using an EMC Data Domain system with VTL configured over Fibre
Channel.They have a requirement tarchive to tape Which process is used to transport data to tape?
A.Use the tape export function on the Data Domain system
B.Use the backup software to move backup data to tape
C.Use the Enterprise Manager on the Data Domain system
D.Use the VTL intertace to eject tapes to ptrysical tapes
Answer: B

5. A customer has an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) environment with multiple EMC Data Domain systems.Backups are stored on Data Domain system A and replicated to Data Domain system B.The Tape Library contains a copy pool
Based on the exhibit, how many copies of the data must the TSM server database track at the primary
site?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

6.Which EMC Data Domain technology allows inline deduplication toccur fast and efficientty?
A.SISL scaling architecture
B.Data Domain Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.DDBoost
D.SATA
Answer: A

7.A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system over CIFS using Symantec NetBackup.How would the Data Domain system be configured on the backup server?
A.adv_file device
B.Jukebox
C.Storage unit
D.Backup-to-diskfolder
Answer: C

8.An organization currentvwites backups tan EMC Data Domain system and then creates encrypted copies of their backups on tapes.These tapes are then shipped ta thi rd-party offsite vault They are now planning tdeploy a second Data Domain system to a secure data center at their corporate headquarters as a replication target treplace the use of the offsite tapes The twsites are connected through the Internet
Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain systems tensure a similar level of data security as achieved by their current process?
A.Encrypt the data at rest
B.Encrypt the replication context
C.Encrypt the data at rest and the replication context
D.Encryption is not required
Answer: B

9.What is the default behavior for messages log files in an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
B.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
C.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
D.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
Answer: C

10.

What does the term “compression factor” refer tin the exhibit?
A.Aggregate data reduction ratio
B.Data sent tthe EMC Data Domain system
C.Space used after compression
D.Total available space remaining
Answer: A

11.

A customer has a backup environment with an EMC Data Domain system usinq DD Boost as Illustrated In the exhibit.Distributed Segment Processing IS enabled
Which component segments the data in the deduplication process?
A.LAN Clients
B.Backup Server
C.Data Domain system A
D.Data Domain system B
Answer: B

12.When using link aggregation across Ethernet ports on an EMC Data Domain system.which OSllayers provide load balancing by use of the IP layer?
A.1 and3
B.1 and4
C.2and3
D.3and4
Answer: D

13.A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system in their EMC NetWorker environment using CIFS as illustrated in the exhibit A CIFS share named “bkp001” has been created on the Data Domain system
How should the backup device be configured in NetWorker?
A.rd=sn_A\\dd01\bkp001
B.\\dd01\bkp001
C.rd=ddOl/bkp001
D.rd=server_A\\dd01\bkp001
Answer: A

14.Why would you increase the MTU size on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Maximize performance when using 10Gb Ethernet
B.Support Ethernet frames smaller than 1500 bytes
C.Support 1 Gb/s Ethernet frames
D.Maxi mize performance when using 100 Mb/s Fast Ethernet
Answer: A

15.A customer has enabled CIFS and configured the CIFS shares on an EMC Data Domain system to allow access through a Symantec NetBackup Media Server.What is a step that must be done on the Media Server tenable read/write access tthe shared directory and configure the devices?
A.Configure a NetBackup disk pool to be used by the NetBackup devices
B.Enable the DD Boost plugin on the NetBackup Media Server
C.Create a mapped network drive that reconnects when the NetBackup service is started
D.Confi gure the NetBackup servi ces tstart as a user that has access tthe share
Answer: D

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Latest EMC E22-250 Dumps

Network Management – Smarts Administration: E22-250 Exam

  • E22-250 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: EMC E22-250
  • Exam Name: Network Management – Smarts Administration
  • Q & A: 186 Q&As

1: A switch appears down in Service Assurance Manager. After trying to troubleshoot the problem, an operator finds out that the switch has been removed from service. Why didn’t this switch automatically become Unmanaged in Smarts?
A.IP Availability Manager needs to be restarted to remove this switch.
B.Other devices that were connected to this switch are still reachable by Smarts.
C.This switch requires rediscovery.
D.Unmanaging devices is a manual process.
Correct Answers: D

2: You want to enhance your existing AM Domain Manager by adding Smarts IP Performance monitoring to your installation. You are running Service Assurance Manager version 7.1.0. What should you do to be sure the upgraded AM is sending the correct information to SAM?
A.Ensure that the Domain Type for the Domain Manager has been changed to INCHARGE-AM-PM-SUITE
B.Launch performance reporting to see if performance data gathering is working
C.Make sure SAM has been restarted after installing the new IP Performance license
D.Verify your IP Domain Manager has been renamed to include “PM”
Correct Answers: A

3: The network administrator asked that all remote branch access routers be polled more often to get more granular measurement of performance metrics. What needs to be done?
A.Copy the existing Router Polling group and split the members between the two groups
B.Create a new Polling group for the branch office routers with a shorter polling interval
C.Create a new Threshold group and set the Polling setting in the Threshold Window to a lower value
D.Reduce the Threshold to accommodate the new requirement
Correct Answers: B

4: Which Performance Monitor Setting will give early warning that an interface is too busy?
A.LinkTrapThreshold
B.MaxUptimeThreshold
C.Restart Trap Window
D.UtilizationThreshold
Correct Answers: D

5: Which adapter pulls topology and events from the underlying Domain Manager to the Service Assurance Manager?
A.dxa adapter
B.syslog adapter
C.trap adapter
D.xml adapter
Correct Answers: A

6: You want to perform a discovery of devices in the pending state. You want to schedule this discovery using cron. Which Smarts command utility can be used to trigger this type of discovery in an IP Availability Domain Manager?
A.sm_ems
B.sm_service
C.sm_topodump
D.sm_tpmgr
Correct Answers: D

7: A telecommunications company has already mapped its customers to the network topology provisioning tool. Into which Smarts product could you import that information?
A.Business Impact Manager
B.IP Availability Manager
C.Service Assurance Manager
D.Smarts Adapter Manager
Correct Answers: A

8: The customer wants to install the IP Availability Management Suite on a SUSE Linux server. Which IP Management Suite document can be used to determine if this operating system is supported?
A.Deployment Guide
B.Installation Guide
C.System Administration Guide
D.User’s Guide
Correct Answers: B

9: dmctl -s IP invoke ICF_PersistenceManager::ICF-PersistenceManager save
What effect will the above command have on Smarts?
A.Correlation will occur immediately.
B.Domain Manager topology changes are discarded.
C.The Codebook will be recomputed.
D.The repository will be written to a file.
Correct Answers: D

10: Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedVia/ConnectedTo
B.PackagedIn/Packages
C.Realizes/RealizedBy
D.Underlying/LayeredOver
Correct Answers: C

11: Which sm_server parameters are required when starting a Service Assurance Manager?
A.–name and –config
B.–name and –port
C.–server and –config
D.–server and –port
Correct Answers: A

12: Where are the Global Console map background files stored?
A.BASEDIR\smarts\local\conf\images\backgrounds
B.BASEDIR\smarts\local\images\
C.BASEDIR\smarts\local\images\backgrounds
D.BASEDIR\smarts\local\images\icons
Correct Answers: C

13: You noticed that the selective group you created is named incorrectly. How would you fix this?
A.Create a new group with the correct name, duplicate the criteria used in the mistitled group, and delete the old group
B.Delete the entire group tree and start over
C.Double-click on the selective group and change the name in the Properties dialog box
D.Right-click on the selective group, choose Properties, and then change the Title entry to the correct name
Correct Answers: A

14: Where do you set the value of MaximumUptime for the Dial-On-Demand interfaces?
A.Polling and Thresholds Console > Threshold tab > Interface Groups
B.Polling and Thresholds Console > Threshold tab > Port Groups – Access Ports
C.Polling and Thresholds Console > Threshold tab > Port Groups – Trunk Ports
D.Polling and Thresholds Console > Threshold tab > System Resource Groups
Correct Answers: A

15: Click the Exhibit button.
The current weights.conf file contains:
Which impact value would be calculated for this Switch Down problem?
A.130
B.232
C.330
D.332
Correct Answers: D

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Latest EMC E20-120 Dumps

EMC Content Management Foundations Exam: E20-120 Exam

  • E20-120 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-120
  • Exam Name: EMC Content Management Foundations Exam
  • Q & A: 238 Q&As

1. Where do you enable the drag and drop plugin for Webtop?
A. File menu
B. Tools menu
C. Preferences
D. Documentum Administrator
Answer: C

2. Which statement is true about the ability to drag and drop objects from one folder to another within Webtop?
A. It is a default feature.
B. The drag and drop plugin must be enabled.
C. The feature must be enabled in Preferences.
D. The feature is only available through the clipboard.
Answer: A

3. What can provide quick access to frequently referenced objects?
A. alias set
B. subscription
C. replica object
D. relation object
Answer: B

4. Which statement about virtual document components is true?
A. To add an object to a virtual document, the object must be checked out.
B. An object can be a component of more than one virtual document simultaneously.
C. When an object is added to a virtual document, the Content Server makes a new copy of the object.
D. Once an object becomes a component of a virtual document, it can never be removed from the virtual document.
Answer: B

5. You are using Documentum Administrator to create a user.
To accomplish this, the default value for the Default Folder property is set to _____.
A. use the Temp cabinet
B. use the System cabinet
C. select any existing cabinet
D. create a new cabinet for the user
Answer: D

6. When creating a permission set, what are the default values assigned to dm_owner and dm_world?
A. dm_world None, dm_owner Delete
B. dm_world – None, dm_owner – Write
C. dm_world Read, dm_owner – Delete
D. dm_world Read, dm_owner Write
Answer: C

7. Which element of a workflow template represents a task in a business process?
A. state
B. activity
C. package
D. work item
Answer: B

8. Lifecycles are implemented as an instance of which object type?
A. dm_policy
B. dm_relation
C. dm_lifecycle
D. dm_state_type
Answer: A

9. Which DQL keyword is used to return current and non-current versions of an object in a Documentum repository?
A. *
B. (all)
C. CURRENT
D. VERSION=’*’
Answer: B

10. When does the Content Server resolve an alias on a sysobject?
A. every time the object is checked in
B. the first time the object is checked in
C. when the object’s lifecycle state changes
D. when the object is linked to a folder in the repository
Answer: B

11. A user wants to list the names of all documents with names that begin with ‘mast.’
How would the user complete the following query to accomplish this?
select object_name from dm_document _____.
A. where object_name like ‘mast*’
B. where object_name like ‘mast%’
C. where object_name like ‘*mast*’
D. where object_name like ‘%mast%’
Answer: B

12. The repository installation has requirements of high demand and mitigation of single points of failure.
Which set of Documentum components can be built with multiple instances to fulfill this requirement?
A. Application Server, database
B. Business Object Registry, DFC
C. cabinet structure, Index Server
D. Content Server, Connection Broker
Answer: D

13. Which implementation of distributed content architecture provides for both content and metadata to be
synchronized across multiple repositories?
A. object replication
B. Site Caching Services
C. federated repositories
D. distributed storage areas
Answer: A

14. The Documentum repository consists of which mandatory components?
A. Application Server and Index Server
B. Index Server and File Storage System
C. Application Server and File Storage System
D. File Storage System and Relational Database
Answer: D

15. What restrictions are placed on content file formats stored in the Documentum repository?
A. must be Microsoft Office formats
B. must be Microsoft Office formats or PDF
C. no restrictions – any format is supported
D. must install special software for some formats
Answer: C

16. Which service does the Documentum repository use to transfer content from third-party applications that do not have plug-ins or connectors?
A. Library Services
B. Content Storage Services
C. Federated Search Services
D. Application Integration Services
Answer: D

17. What software service enables the automated movement of content between tiers of storage?
A. Library Services
B. Federated Services
C. Content Storage Services
D. Application Integration Services
Answer: C

18. What is the main role of the Content Server?
A. manages and secures content
B. creates pdf and html renditions of content
C. indexes content and provides search functionality
D. creates and manages DocApps and Custom Types
Answer: A

19. To reduce the administration of managing multiple content repositories spread across geographical areas, what architecture should be implemented?
A. content replication
B. Site Caching Services
C. federated repositories
D. distributed storage areas
Answer: C

20. Object metadata is stored in _____.
A. a flat file
B. the content store
C. the Content Server
D. a relational database
Answer: D

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Latest EMC E20-822 Dumps

CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators: E20-822 Exam

  • E20-822 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-822
  • Exam Name: CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators
  • Q & A: 132 Q&As

1: A customer runs its critical Oracle environment through a Fibre Channel connection to a CX3-40c. In order to leverage the existing iSCSI connections, management decides to allocate a small amount of storage to support several Windows file servers. The customer needs to make certain that the Oracle SLA is not impacted by the non-critical Windows file servers. Which solution do you recommend?
A.Use Navisphere Quality of Service Manager to set limits on applications connected through iSCSI
B.Change the write aside cache value for Windows LUNs
C.Use Navisphere Service Taskbar to assign a higher SLA to the Oracle environment
D.CX3-40c will automatically assign higher priority to FC connections over iSCSI
Correct Answers: A

2: Click the Exhibit button.
The application using LUN 21 performs mainly 16 kB I/O operations. What is true of LUN 21?
A.Read performance would improve if read cache was increased from 250 MB to 500 MB
B.The application performs mainly read-modify-write-read operations
C.The read cache hit ratio is above 50%
D.The read I/O access pattern is largely random
Correct Answers: D

3: You are a storage administrator who has been tasked with sizing a database LUN for an Exchange 2007 mailbox server. You have been provided with the following information regarding basic capacity requirements:
450 users
200 MB mailbox size
2.5 MB mail sent\day
Deleted items retained for 14 days
Deleted mailboxes retained for 30 days
You have also been provided with additional information regarding usage and maintenance processes:
Online maintenance takes 3 days to complete
Approximately five mailboxes are deleted during an average month
Content indexing will not be performed
Offline maintenance will be performed on a separate LUN
Which approximate LUN size will satisfy the listed requirements and still allow for 20% yearly growth?
A.145 GB
B.175 GB
C.355 GB
D.455 GB
Correct Answers: B

4: Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is complaining that SAN Copy sessions from CLARiiON-A to CLARiiON-B take substantially longer than from those to CLARiiON-C. All hosts have 4 Gb/s HBAs. All Cisco equipment is base hardware configurations.
Which component is causing the issue?
A.9020s
B.9216
C.HBAs
D.Hosts
Correct Answers: B

5: A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer’s site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Correct Answers: C

6: A customer has set up a disaster recovery site 50 miles (81 km) away from their production site. The customer is using MirrorView/S over IP with the Write Intent Log enabled. In addition, they have a dedicated 45 Mb/s line with a latency of 2 ms. During the testing of the automated solution for disaster recovery, an administrator accidentally disables the Write Intent Log. What is the likely outcome of this error if a secondary image becomes fractured?
A.The fracture log will continue to maintain a log of changed blocks.
B.The fracture log will continue to persistently maintain a log of changed blocks.
C.The Write Intent Log will flush all records of changes.
D.The Write Intent Log will hold change records up to the point where it was disabled.
Correct Answers: A

7: Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what happened between 05:21 A.M. and 06:56 A.M.?
A.CLARiiON back-end port was disconnected
B.CLARiiON front-end port was disconnected
C.MirrorView connection failed
D.SAN Copy connection failed
Correct Answers: C

8: A customer has two 50 GB MirrorView/S mirrored LUNs between two CX3-40s without a Write Intent Log. LUN1 is on SP A and LUN2 is on SP B. The two CX3-40s are connected via dedicated Fibre Channel links.
During the nightly maintenance window, the connection between SP A on the local array and SP A on the remote array is lost for 2 minutes. SP B is unaffected. When the customer logs in the next morning, they notice that LUN1 has a status of “attention” and is still fractured.
What caused this behavior?
A.Auto recovery is not possible on the CLARiiON
B.Missing Write Intent Log
C.Recovery policy is set to Manual
D.SP A set the affected front-end FC port administratively down
Correct Answers: C

9: A customer has a 300 GB application LUN on which they would like to take a snapshot. The LUN will later be presented to a backup host for testing. The production LUN stays idle during the backup test. The testing process performed by the backup host is write intensive and will change all the data on the LUN during the test period. What is the minimum required Reserved LUN Pool size?
A.220 GB
B.420 GB
C.620 GB
D.820 GB
Correct Answers: B

10: A customer has an SQL database that initiates a clone for reporting nstance by accounting  The clone is mounted read-only on an alternate host. The production LUN is RAID 1/0 and is 750 GB in size.
The SP event logs indicate that the clone LUN was trespassed during the synchronization. What is the status of the clone?
A.Peer SP continues the operation but the clone is corrupt
B.Peer SP fractures the clone and will need manual resynchronization
C.Peer SP halts the operation and the clone is now corrupted
D.Peer SP will continue the synchronization and the clone remains usable
Correct Answers: D

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Latest EMC E20-598 Dumps

Backup Recovery – Avamar Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators: E20-598 Exam

  • E20-598 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-598
  • Exam Name: Backup Recovery – Avamar Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators
  • Q & A: 176 Q&As

1: You are cloning a save set in NetWorker. There is one appendable clone volume available. However, the clone operation is not using this volume and is asking for a new volume to be mounted.
What may be the cause?
A.Entire cloned save set must fit on the clone volume and there is not enough room
B.Source volume has an earlier clone of the save set
C.Clone volume has an earlier clone of the save set
D.Source volume is being used for another clone operation
Correct Answers: C

2: In a Windows environment, the NetWorker nsrd process will not start because the resource database is corrupt. How can you recover the resource information?
A.rename …\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
B.rename …\nsr\res, start nsrd, and run recover
C.remove …\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
D.remove …\nsr\res, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
Correct Answers: D

3: You need to direct all save sets from several NetWorker clients to the same set of backup volumes. Which attributes in a pool resource can you configure to accomplish this?
A.Groups, Save sets and Levels
B.Save sets and Devices
C.Groups and Clients
D.Clients, Save sets and Levels
Correct Answers: C

4: On the Replication Manager server, which process would you check if you are having problems communicating with the client?
A.IRCCD
B.PRD
C.IRD
D.IRCD
Correct Answers: C

5: In Networker 7.3, what does nsr_shutdown use to determine which processes to shut down and in which order?
A.run files
B.process info files
C.shutdown script files
D.nsr_proc_id files
Correct Answers: A

6: You are having problems mounting an additional replica on a Solaris Mount Host using Replication Manager.   Which file would you check for any misconfiguration?
A./kernel/drv/emulex.conf
B./kernel/drv/st.conf
C./kernel/drv/sd.conf
D./kernel/drv/lputil.conf
Correct Answers: C

7: You added a new tape library with three physical drives to an existing storage node in a NetWorker environment.  How many licenses of any kind are needed?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Correct Answers: A

8: What must be configured for a directed recovery to be performed using NetWorker?
A.Administering client must be in destination client’s Remote Access list
B.Destination client must be in source client’s “servers” file
C.Destination client must be in source client’s Remote Access list
D.Source client must be in destination client’s “servers” file
Correct Answers: C

9: Which operating system must the host be running in order to install the NetWorker Management Console?
A.Windows or NetWare
B.Windows or HP-UX
C.Windows or Solaris
D.Windows or Linux
Correct Answers: C

10: What is a requirement for an Auto Archive operation to successfully happen?
A.The Auto Archive license must be installed
B.The CLARiiON Disk Library must be running at least version 1.2 of the emulation software
C.The virtual library must be the same type as the physical library
D.The virtual tape drive must be the same type as the physical tape drive
Correct Answers: D

11: When using a NetWorker advanced file type device, what happens automatically when the file system containing the advanced file type device becomes full?
A.Aborted and expired save sets are removed
B.Oldest save sets are staged
C.Largest save sets are staged
D.Save set being written spans to another volume
Correct Answers: A

12: The destination volume becomes full during a NetWorker clone operation. Which pool needs to have a volume available for the clone operation to continue?
A.Original backup pool
B.Same Clone pool
C.New Clone pool
D.Default backup pool
Correct Answers: B

13: In NetWorker, you want unlabeled volumes in an autochanger to be used before recyclable volumes are reused.  Auto media management is currently enabled on the autochanger. What must you do to configure this?
A.Nothing needs to be done
B.Disable Auto media management
C.Set all labeled volumes to a mode of Manual Recycle
D.Set all labeled volumes to a mode of Manual Recycle and disable Auto media management
Correct Answers: C

14: What happens when a NetWorker advanced file type device fills up?
A.A NetWorker notification is performed
B.Save streams going to the device hang until another volume becomes available
C.Specified save sets on the volume are immediately staged
D.An email is sent to the NetWorker administrator recommending that another volume be mounted
Correct Answers: A

15: A NetWorker hostA Auth Methods attribute contains:
162.168.0.0/24, oldauth
0.0.0.0/0, nsrauth
Which statement describes what happens when other hosts try to communicate with hostA?
A.162.168.0.0/24 hosts will be able to communicate with hostA only using nsrauth authentication
B.162.168.0.177/24 host will be able to communicate with hostA only using nsrauth authentication
C.162.168.0.177/24 host will not be able to communicate with hostA using nsrauth authentication
D.All NetWorker hosts will able to communicate with hostA using nsrauth authentication
Correct Answers: C

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Latest EMC E20-597 Dumps

Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators: E20-597 Exam

  • E20-597 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-597
  • Exam Name: Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators
  • Q & A: 189 Q&As

1: You are cloning a save set in NetWorker. There is one appendable clone volume available. However, the clone operation is not using this volume and is asking for a new volume to be mounted.
What may be the cause?
A.Entire cloned save set must fit on the clone volume and there is not enough room
B.Source volume has an earlier clone of the save set
C.Clone volume has an earlier clone of the save set
D.Source volume is being used for another clone operation
Correct Answers: C

2: In a Windows environment, the NetWorker nsrd process will not start because the resource database is corrupt. How can you recover the resource information?
A.rename …\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
B.rename …\nsr\res, start nsrd, and run recover
C.remove …\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
D.remove …\nsr\res, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
Correct Answers: D

3: You need to direct all save sets from several NetWorker clients to the same set of backup volumes. Which attributes in a pool resource can you configure to accomplish this?
A.Groups, Save sets and Levels
B.Save sets and Devices
C.Groups and Clients
D.Clients, Save sets and Levels
Correct Answers: C

4: On the Replication Manager server, which process would you check if you are having problems communicating with the client?
A.IRCCD
B.PRD
C.IRD
D.IRCD
Correct Answers: C

5: In Networker 7.3, what does nsr_shutdown use to determine which processes to shut down and in which order?
A.run files
B.process info files
C.shutdown script files
D.nsr_proc_id files
Correct Answers: A

6: You are having problems mounting an additional replica on a Solaris Mount Host using Replication Manager.   Which file would you check for any misconfiguration?
A./kernel/drv/emulex.conf
B./kernel/drv/st.conf
C./kernel/drv/sd.conf
D./kernel/drv/lputil.conf
Correct Answers: C

7: You added a new tape library with three physical drives to an existing storage node in a NetWorker environment.  How many licenses of any kind are needed?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Correct Answers: A

8: What must be configured for a directed recovery to be performed using NetWorker?
A.Administering client must be in destination client’s Remote Access list
B.Destination client must be in source client’s “servers” file
C.Destination client must be in source client’s Remote Access list
D.Source client must be in destination client’s “servers” file
Correct Answers: C

9: Which operating system must the host be running in order to install the NetWorker Management Console?
A.Windows or NetWare
B.Windows or HP-UX
C.Windows or Solaris
D.Windows or Linux
Correct Answers: C

10: What is a requirement for an Auto Archive operation to successfully happen?
A.The Auto Archive license must be installed
B.The CLARiiON Disk Library must be running at least version 1.2 of the emulation software
C.The virtual library must be the same type as the physical library
D.The virtual tape drive must be the same type as the physical tape drive
Correct Answers: D

11: When using a NetWorker advanced file type device, what happens automatically when the file system containing the advanced file type device becomes full?
A.Aborted and expired save sets are removed
B.Oldest save sets are staged
C.Largest save sets are staged
D.Save set being written spans to another volume
Correct Answers: A

12: The destination volume becomes full during a NetWorker clone operation. Which pool needs to have a volume available for the clone operation to continue?
A.Original backup pool
B.Same Clone pool
C.New Clone pool
D.Default backup pool
Correct Answers: B

13: In NetWorker, you want unlabeled volumes in an autochanger to be used before recyclable volumes are reused.  Auto media management is currently enabled on the autochanger. What must you do to configure this?
A.Nothing needs to be done
B.Disable Auto media management
C.Set all labeled volumes to a mode of Manual Recycle
D.Set all labeled volumes to a mode of Manual Recycle and disable Auto media management
Correct Answers: C

14: What happens when a NetWorker advanced file type device fills up?
A.A NetWorker notification is performed
B.Save streams going to the device hang until another volume becomes available
C.Specified save sets on the volume are immediately staged
D.An email is sent to the NetWorker administrator recommending that another volume be mounted
Correct Answers: A

15: A NetWorker hostA Auth Methods attribute contains:
162.168.0.0/24, oldauth
0.0.0.0/0, nsrauth
Which statement describes what happens when other hosts try to communicate with hostA?
A.162.168.0.0/24 hosts will be able to communicate with hostA only using nsrauth authentication
B.162.168.0.177/24 host will be able to communicate with hostA only using nsrauth authentication
C.162.168.0.177/24 host will not be able to communicate with hostA using nsrauth authentication
D.All NetWorker hosts will able to communicate with hostA using nsrauth authentication
Correct Answers: C

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Latest EMC E20-870 Dumps

Storage Management for Implementation Engineers: E20-870 Exam

  • E20-870 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-870
  • Exam Name: Storage Management for Implementation Engineers
  • Q & A: 132 Q&As

1: What must be uninstalled to upgrade to ControlCenter 5.2 from an earlier version?
A.StorageScope API
B.Performance View
C.StorageScope Server
D.Integration Gateway Agent
Correct Answers: B

2: How would an administrator define Windows user groups that correspond to functional VisualSAN roles?
A.Use the “Administration” tab
B.Edit the NetworkSecurity.properties file
C.Use the “Settings>Role-Based Setting” menu
D.Assign roles using the Windows Management Interface
Correct Answers: B

3: A new Cisco MDS 9000 series switch has to be discovered in ControlCenter. What are two [2] prerequisite steps that must be performed on the switch to ensure a successful discovery?
A.All HBAs and Storage Ports are cabled
B.Create an SNMP community with rw privileges
C.Create SNMPv3 users with administrative privileges
D.Set up the FCC Agent Host as an SNMPv3 trap recipient
E.Check that the SAN-OS version is supported by ControlCenter
Correct Answers: B E

4: In order for repetitive allocation task to be successful, which prerequisite needs to be in place before provisioning?
A.Zoning pools
B.Storage pools
C.Allocation pools
D.Device group pools
Correct Answers: B

5: Which two [2] are true about the StorageScope API?
A.Must be installed on the Repository host
B.Generates XML files for custom reporting
C.Must be installed on the StorageScope Server
D.Provides an ODBC connection to the Repository
E.Provides access to database views for custom reporting
Correct Answers: A E

6: The Finance group wants reporting on storage utilization of its applications in StorageScope. Which two [2] steps must be performed?

A.Identify Managed Objects used by the application
B.Create user-defined groups in ControlCenter Server
C.Create user-defined groups in StorageScope Server
D.Create user-defined storage pools in ControlCenter Console
E.Move the Managed Objects used by the application into a ControlCenter Console group
Correct Answers: A E

7: Your customer has a large two-Store distributed infrastructure which has been designed to manage their environment of 550 small hosts and 10 medium hosts. In the EMC published guidelines the customer’s infrastructure is detailed as being able to discover 125 medium hosts or 13 large hosts in a single, one-hour off-peak timeslot. What is the minimum number of one-hour off-peak time slots that must be configured to discover this environment on a daily basis?
A.One
B.Three
C.Four
D.Five
Correct Answers: A

8: ControlCenter 5.2 SP1 SAN Manager currently supports importing of aliases for which switches?
A.Cisco MDS9216
B.Brocade DS-32B
C.Brocade DS-16B
D.McData DS-140M
Correct Answers: D

9: A customer wants to give only user access view to StorageScope reports. Which rule applies?
A.User must be added to the Administrators Group
B.User must be added to the StorageScope View Rule
C.User must be added to the StorageScope Administrator Group
D.All users, by default, have access to view StorageScope reports
Correct Answers: D

10: In ControlCenter when the Oracle Agent is communicating through a firewall in a Windows environment. Which port needs to be open?
A.10869
B.10979
C.10989
D.10999
Correct Answers: D

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Latest EMC E20-582 Dumps

Storage Management Specialist Exam For Storage Adminsitrator: E20-582 Exam

  • E20-582 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-582
  • Exam Name: Storage Management Specialist Exam For Storage Adminsitrator
  • Q & A: 126 Q&As

1: What are the four [4] types of Workload Analyzer-related Data Collection Policies that can be configured and enabled within the ControlCenter Console?
A.WLA Daily
B.WLA Analyst
C.WLA Retention
D.WLA Revolving
E.WLA Summary
F.WLA Scheduled
Correct Answers: A B C D

2: What are the two [2] main report categories in the StorageScope main screen?
A.Chargeback
B.Infrastructure
C.Billed customers
D.Allocated storage
E.Service consumers
Correct Answers: B E

3: A portion of your user community is experiencing performance issues every Friday from 3:00 PM to 4:00 PM.  You have determined that the servers experiencing this issue are all connected to the same Symmetrix.  You determine that WLA is the best tool to analyze the performance on the Symmetrix during this time period.  You determine that the only WLA DCP currently enabled is WLA Daily with the default interval.
What is the best method for determining the cause of this issue?
A.Utilize the currently enabled WLA Daily Collection with default interval.
B.In the Console left hand tree under Administration\Data Collection Policies\Policy Templates\Workload Analyzer Archiver\WLA Analyst create and utilize a new WLA Analyst Collection
C.In the Console left hand tree under Administration\Data Collection Policies\Policy Templates\Storage Agent for Symmetrix\WLA Analyst create and utilize a new WLA Analyst Collection
D.In the Console left hand tree under Administration\Data Collection Policies\Policy Templates\Workload Analyzer Archiver\WLA Revolving create and utilize a new WLA Revolving Collection
Correct Answers: C

4: Which three [3] characteristics describe the ControlCenter Repository?
A.An embedded SQL database
B.A repository for historical data
C.An embedded Oracle database
D.A single unique component in a ControlCenter Infrastructure
E.A component which maintains storage configuration data in real time
Correct Answers: B C D

6: Which cluster configuration is supported for the installation of ControlCenter components?
A.Active/Active dual node
B.Active/Active single node
C.Active/Passive dual node
D.Active/Passive single node
Correct Answers: C

7: Which statement contains the correct Navisphere CLI syntax to display storage group information?
A.navicli -h SPA -a storagegroup name scoop_1
B.navicli -h SPA -a storagegroup -list   scoop_1
C.navicli -h SPA storagegroup -list   -gname scoop_1
D.navicli -h SPA -a storagegroup -list   -gname scoop_1
Correct Answers: C

8: Host Managed Objects in the console are created when a Master Agent is installed on the host and started.  What is another way that a Host Managed Object can appear in a ControlCenter Console?
A.Host Agent Installation
B.Connectivity Discovery
C.ESN Manager Migration
D.Assisted Discovery of an array
Correct Answers: C

9: You are looking at the ControlCenter Console. In the tree on the left hand side of the Console under Hosts you see that your host has been discovered.  Which four [4] communication steps have taken place between the ControlCenter tiers to allow your host to be viewed in the Console?
A.Store forwards information to the Server
B.Server retrieves information from the Store
C.Store forwards information to the Repository
D.Console requests information from the Server
E.Server retrieves information from the Repository
F.Master Agent collects data and forwards it to the Store
Correct Answers: C D E F

10: Click the Exhibit button.
On the sample Enterprise Storage window shown, what does the capital “U” icon next to Host “UNIX2” indicate?
A.Undefined
B.Unavailable
C.Unmanaged
D.Unreachable
Correct Answers: C

11: Which three [3] items are features of EMC VisualSRM?
A.Autofixes
B.Snapshots
C.Thresholds
D.Intelligent Actions
E.Topology Reports
Correct Answers: B C D

12: Which description best describe Data Collection Policies (DCP’s)?
A.A set of schedules to retrieve data from the Repository
B.A set of schedules to send SNMP traps to third-party frameworks
C.A formal set of statements that collects object data via ControlCenter agents
D.A formal set of statements that manages object data via ControlCenter agents
Correct Answers: C

13: What are three [3] important performance benefits of CLARiiON cache memory?
A.Mirroring write cache
B.Absorbing bursts of writes into cache
C.Performing forced flushing of the cache
D.Satisfying user read requests from cache
E.Merging several writes to the same disk area into a single operation
Correct Answers: B D E

14: Which statement best describes CLARiiON metaLUN expansion?
A.A metaLUN can be expanded
B.A metaLUN cannot be expanded
C.Only a striped metaLUN can be expanded
D.Only a concatenated metaLUN can be expanded
Correct Answers: A

15: Which three [3] items can be configured in a VisualSRM Report Job?
A.List of Reports
B.Report output format
C.Threshold trigger levels
D.Data gathering schedule
E.Report generation schedule
Correct Answers: A B E

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Latest EMC E20-547 Dumps

VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators: E20-547 Exam

  • E20-547 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-547
  • Exam Name: VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators
  • Q & A: 120 Q&As

QUESTION NO: 1
What will prevent a storage administrator from deleting a storage group?
A. The presence of LUNs in the storage group
B. The presence of MirrorView target LUNs in the storage group
C. The presence of MirrorView source LUNs in the storage group
D. The presence of hosts in the storage group
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which RecoverPoint configuration details can be presented in report format when using Data
Protection Advisor?
A. RPA configuration changes
B. Replication sets
C. Replication lag
D. Link state change
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
How many storage groups can a host belong to in an array?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
Which Unisphere wizard can automatically allocate all available disk storage and present it as
private LUNs?
A. Backend Bus Reset Wizard
B. File System Wizard
C. Disk Provisioning Wizard for File
D. Celera Setup Wizard
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5
What happens when a reverse synchronization completes without Protected Restore Mode
enabled?
A. Only the reverse-synchronized clone remains unfractured
B. Host writes to the source LUN are not mirrored to clone
C. The gold copy clone used for restore will remain as is
D. All clones will be fractured
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6
Which criterion must be met before executing the storage pool -destroy command with Navisphere
secure CLI.
A. Complete removal of all LUNs from the pool
B. Complete removal of unused LUNs from the pool
C. Complete removal of large LUNs from the pool
D. Complete removal of empty LUNs from the pool
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7
What does the acronym “CHAP” refer to?
A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
B. Challenge Handshake Authorization Protocol
C. CLARiiON Handshake Authentication
D. Consistent Host Application Protocol
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8
A file system has auto_extend enabled. If the file system size is greater than the extend_size
value. What will happen when the file system reaches its HWM?
A. The file system will not be extended
B. The extend size value cannot by less than the die system size
C. The file system is extended by the extend_size value
D. The file system is extended by five percent of its size
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9
At which RAID level are FAST Cache drives configured for VNX arrays?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
When performing switch maintenance, a customer accidentally disconnects all network connections to an active VNX Data Mover
How does VNX handle this situation?
A. The primary Data Mover remains active
B. The VNX always notifies EMC Customer Service of the problem
C. The active Data Mover immediately fails over
D. The active Data Mover fails over after 30 seconds of lost connectivity
Answer: A

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Latest EMC E20-538 Dumps

Network Attached Storage (NAS) Specialist Exam: E20-538 Exam

  • E20-538 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-538
  • Exam Name: Network Attached Storage (NAS) Specialist Exam
  • Updated: March 10, 2012
  • Q & A: 74 Q&As

E20-538 exam is an important EMC Certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Lead2Pass EMC technical experts have collected and certified 74 questions and answers of Network Attached Storage (NAS) Specialist Exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the Planning and Designing EMC Superdome Server Solutions and enhance candidates’ abilities. With Lead2Pass E20-538 preparation tests you can pass the Network Attached Storage (NAS) Specialist Exam easily, get the EMC and go further on EMC career path.

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Latest EMC E20-351 Dumps

Storage Area Network (SAN) Implementation Exam: E20-351 Exam

  • E20-351 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-351
  • Exam Name: Storage Area Network (SAN) Implementation Exam
  • Updated: March 10, 2012
  • Q & A: 122 Q&As

Lead2Pass EMCSA E20-351 exam questions which contain almost 100% correct answers are tested and approved by senior EMC lecturers and experts. They have been devoting themselves to providing candidates with the best study materials to make sure what they get are valuable. E20-351 practice tests are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy which can make you succeed in the exam.

1. What is a valid CLARiiON World Wide Node Name?
A.50:06:01:63:39:a0:0d:84
B.50:06:01:60:b9:a0:0d:84
C.50:06:01:6b:39:a0:0d:84
D.21:00:00:e0:8b:86:88:db
Answer: B

2. In CLARiiON environments, to perform management from a host that has an agent installed, the storage must be added as a Privileged User in a specific file. Which file is this?
A.agent.cfg
B.agent.config
C.naviagent.cfg
D.naviagent.config
Answer: B

3. Click the Exhibit button.
What is the name of the pictured connector used for Ethernet connections?
A.RJ-8
B.RJ-11
C.RJ-45
D.RJ-48
Answer: B

4. Which architecture allows for initiators to exist in an Ethernet environment while the target storage exists in a Fibre Channel environment?
A.Bridging
B.Routing
C.Switching
D.Tunneling
Answer: A

5. A company has decided to use all of SAN Advisors features. What will this company also need?
A.An Internet connection, Oracle 8, and Excel 2002
B.An Internet connection, Visio 2002, and Excel 2002.
C.Microsoft SQL 2000 and Excel 2002
D.Oracle 8 and Excel 2002
Answer: B
6. Click the Exhibit button.

Which type of connector is the pictured component known as?
A.FC connector
B.LC connector
C.RJFC connector
D.SC connector
Answer: D

7. Click the Exhibit button.

What is indicated by this icon displayed in the PowerPath Monitor Taskbar Icons?
A.Degraded
B.Failed
C.Server Not Responding
D.Standard
Answer: A

8. Click the Exhibit button.
In the diagram, what does the highlighted command do?
A.Creates a metaLUN
B.Creates a storage group
C.Expands a RAID group
D.Expands a storage group
Answer: A

9. Which SAN-based device provides critical server CPU offload and frees servers to perform application processing?
A.FC-SW
B.Host bus adapter
C.Multimode fibre cable
D.SFP
Answer: B

10. What is the maximum bandwidth that a switched fabric can reach?
A.Link rate times 128
B.Link rate times 2
C.Link rate times 256
D.Link rate times number of ports
Answer: D

11. What does the Fibre Channel Management Integration, Management Information Base
(FCMGMT-INT MIB) provide?
A.A heterogeneous method to manage multiple devices across a SAN
B.A simplified approach to setting up EMC arrays in new Fibre Channel environments
C.Applications used to set up Fibre Channel networks
D.The UDP protocol as a method to manage a SAN
Answer: A

12. In which situation does the Fibre Channel protocol reach data rates up to 10 GB/s?
A.When FC data is sent over IP through a multiprotocol router
B.When used as ISLs (E_Ports) on all switches
C.When used as ISLs (E_Ports) on supported switches
D.When used in a CAS environment (content addressed storage)
Answer: C

13. Which ports are used for interswitch links (ISL)?
A.E_Ports
B.F_Ports
C.FL_Ports
D.N_Ports
Answer: A

14. The Fibre Channel standard defines a layer protocol. Which level serves as the transport layer?
A.FC-1
B.FC-2
C.FC-3
D.FC-4
Answer: D

15. The Fibre Channel standard defines a layer protocol. Which level serves as the physical layer?
A.FC-0
B.FC-1
C.FC-2
D.FC-3
Answer: A

16. Which Fibre Channel layer is responsible for Process Logins?
A.FC-1
B.FC-2
C.FC-3
D.FC-4
Answer: D

17. Which Fibre Channel layer covers media, the associated drivers, and receivers capable of operating at a wide range of speeds?
A.FC-0
B.FC-1
C.FC-4
D.UPL
Answer: A

18. Which Fibre Channel layer is responsible for link initialization and recovery?
A.FC-1
B.FC-2
C.FC-3
D.FC-4
Answer: A

19. How many bits are in a Fibre Channel address?
A.16
B.24
C.64
D.128
Answer: B

20. In a switched fabric environment, what happens when a N_Port is connected to a F_Port?
A.The fabric login begins associating the physical address and the network MAC address.
B.The fabric login begins associating the physical address and the NAA.
C.The fabric login begins associating the physical address and the World Wide Name.
D.The fabric login begins associating the World Wide Name and the frame address.
Answer: C

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