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Free Download latest EMC E20-324 Dumps

VNX Solutions Design Exam for Technology Architects: E20-324 Exam

  • E20-324 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-324
  • Exam Name: VNX Solutions Design Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 65 Q&As

QUESTION 1
You are doing performance analysis on a VNX5100 that is configured with three virtual pools. You determine that FAST Cache would benefit overall performance. Why are you unable to configure FAST Cache on the array?
A.    Virtual pools have already been enabled
B.    Cachedmemory needs to be enabled
C.    Cache memory needs to be disabled
D.    Engineering model is required to enable FAST Cache
Answer: B

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Free Download latest EMC E20-545 Dumps

VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects: E20-545 Exam

  • E20-545 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-545
  • Exam Name: VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 116 Q&As

QUESTION 1
You are proposing a storage solution using a VNX system. What will you tell the storage administrator about the default setting for VNX IP address filtering?
A.    Access is limited to a single Unisphere client.
B.    IP address filtering does not restrict any access.
C.    IP address filtering is not installed by default.
D.    IP address filtering prevents all communications until the VNX system is configured.
Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which protocol does VNX support for encrypted network management activities?
A.    SSH
B.    PKI
C.    IPSec
D.    LDAP
Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In order to ensure that role-based access is enforced, the VNX storage domain has implemented two administrative groups called Auditors and Storage Admins. One of the administrators is a member of both groups. What access to objects will that administrator inherit?
A.    The least restrictive privilege established by the two groups
B.    The most restrictive privilege established by the two groups
C.    The first group that the administrator joined
D.    The last group that the administrator joined
Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are supporting a customer whose VNX hostname has recently changed. Immediately after this change, the VNX administrators begin to receive certificate errors when they attempt to connect to the array. You need to advise them on how to regenerate the Control Station’s certificate authority and web server certificates.
Which command should be used?
A.    server_certificate
B.    server_security
C.    nas_ca_certificate
D.    nas_license
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A.    2048 bits
B.    1024 bits
C.    2048 bytes
D.    1024 bytes
Answer: A

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Free Download latest EMC E20-816 Dumps

Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects: E20-816 Exam

  • E20-816 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-816
  • Exam Name: Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 141 Q&As

1.The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source data for testing purposes. The snap would be kept for 8 hours. How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution?
A. Sum report with a reset of 4 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: D

2.The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source data for testing purposes with a 16-hour RPO.
How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution.?
A. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Sum report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: B

3.A customer wants to migrate from DMX-3 with 5772 to DMX-4 with 5773 code. They are using
TimeFinder/Clone every night for backup processing with synchronous COFW. TimeFinder/Clone with 5773 allows them to use a new feature called asynchronous COFW.
How many back-end operations does TimeFinder/Clone make with Enginuity 5773 using Aynchronous COFW compared with TimeFinder/Clone with Enginuity 5772?
A. Back-end operations are lower with 5773 Enginuity.
B. Back-end operations are the same in both Enginuity versions.
C. Back-end operations are higher with 5773 Enginuity.
D. Depends on disk speed and RAID protection.
Answer: B

4.A company has a Symmetrix V-Max array in an open systems environment. They want to use
TimeFinder/Snap to create a single copy per day of a production environment containing 200 volumes of 8 GB each. Twenty-five percent of the total I/O in the application is write activity.
What is the amount of physical storage required for all VDEVs?
A. 50 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 0 GB
Answer: D

5.What are the key differences between SIRT in 5772 and SIRT in Symmetrix V-Max with 5874?
A. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT > 115 microsec
B. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 64 KB or RTT threshold > 520 microsec
C. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT < 115 microsec
D. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 128 KB or if RTT < 115 microsec
Answer: A

6.The customer wants to replace the three DMX 2000s with a single Symmetrix V-Max using Open Replicator hot pull for the move. What sequence of steps should be taken to get ready for the copy sessions?
LUN Masking of DMX 2000 remote volumes to the V-Max FA ports.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via the same fabric or SAN extension.
FA ports of V-Max are zoned to FA ports of the three DMX 2000s.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via point-to-point or FC-AL.
LUN Masking of the V-Max control volumes to the DMX 2000 FA ports.
All V-Max FAs have access to the DMX 2000 volumes being migrated.
A. 4,6,1,3
B. 4,3,5,6
C. 2,3,1,6
D. 2,3,5,6
Answer: C

7.A customer’s application is stored on a DMX-4. The application runs 24x7x365. They would like to send consistent replicas of this data simultaneously to four branch offices on a nightly basis. The branch offices have CLARiiON arrays.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. Use TimeFinder/Mirror to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data from the BCVs to the remote offices.
B. Use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
C. Use Open Replicator hot push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
D. Use TimeFinder/Snap to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data on the VDEVs to the remote offices.
Answer: A

8.An Open Replicator data migration from a HDS to Symmetrix array is being proposed. The customer has the following requirements: Application downtime should be minimal and Open Replicator session failure must not result in data loss
Which solution will meet the customer’s requirements?
A. Cold pull with precopy
B. Cold pull with donor update
C. Hot pull with donor update
D. Hot pull with precopy
Answer: C

9.A customer has a single V-Max and you are helping to design a new SRDF solution. This customer wants to replicate all its data with SRDF over a Gigabit Ethernet.
In order to get the maximum benefit from scaling, what is the most important consideration?
A. All GigE ports on the source should be able to see all GigE ports on the target array
B. Ports must have auto-negotiation off because we don’t support Jumbo Frames
C. Speed limit value in the Symmetrix configuration file (not persistent)
D. Speed limits can be set on GigE ports from 100 to 10000 Mb (megabits)
Answer: A

10.Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
SRDF/S over Fibre Channel has been configured between two V-Max arrays that are 50 kilometers apart.
What is the expected write response time delay due to latency?
A. 0.25 ms
B. 0.5 ms
C. 1 ms
D. 2 ms
Answer: C

11.A customer is migrating their Windows 2008 servers from HP storage to EMC V-Max storage.
Host-based performance metrics need to be used to design a configuration. EMC recommends the diskperf -Y command to enable I/O statics in every server.
Why is enabling disk statistics collection recommended?
A. It improves performance of the servers
B. Otherwise, a reboot will be required to activate
C. Otherwise, you must start Performance Monitor
D. Because Windows 2008 leaves the default value to off
Answer: B

12.The customer has a DMX-4 replicating to another DMX-4 (microcode level 5773 for both) over an SRDF/S session between two sites 20 km apart and wants to understand the limitation (if any) of using the Single Round Trip (SiRT) feature on RF directors. What is the applicable limitation of the setup?
A. SiRT only works for an I/O size of less than 32 KB.
B. SiRT is enabled for all block sizes.
C. SiRT would not work because the distance is greater than 12 km.
D. SiRT only works for SRDF/A.
Answer: A

13.A customer is running SRDF/A single session mode. They want to change into SRDF/S mode after nightly periods of high write activity have completed. The switch to synchronous mode failed. What is a potential cause for this failure?
A. SRDF/S cycle switching feature is not enabled.
B. Mode change feature is only supported with Concurrent SRDF.
C. SDRF/A write cache is not enabled at the remote site.
D. Fifty percent or more of SRDF/A write cache is in use on the target Symmetrix.
Answer: D

14.A customer is implementing a new SRDF/S environment with DMX arrays. The primary and secondary data centers are 20 kilometers apart.
Which consideration is needed for planning, designing, and implementing a synchronous solution?
A. Ensure that the application can tolerate the additional latency
B. Ensure that adequate cache on the arrays is allocated
C. Ensure that the RAID configuration is identical on both arrays
D. Ensure that there is twice the recommended amount of bandwidth
Answer: A

15.A customer is planning to implement SRDF/S into their environment. The customer wants zero data loss if they lose their primary data center (R1). The distance is 1,000 miles, and the customer would like to maintain an application response time of 10 ms.
Which design would you implement?
A. SRDF/AR single-hop
B. SRDF/AR multi-hop
C. SRDF/DM
D. SRDF/S with adaptive copy initially
Answer: B

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Latest EMC E20-515 Dumps

Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects: E20-515 Exam

  • E20-515 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-515
  • Exam Name: Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 95 Q&As

1.An SRDF failover operation has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation.
What is theexpected statusof R1 and R2 devicesafter performing an SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Answer: B

2.An SRDF failover operation on has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation.
What is the expected status of the R1 andR2devices after performing an SRDF failover operation.?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Write Disabled; R2 Read/Write
C. R1 Read/Write; R2 Read/Write
D. R1 Read/Write; R2 Write Disabled
Answer: B

3.What is a benefit of using TimeFinder/Snap?
A. Mainframe dataset level copies
B. Ultra high BCV availability
C. Full volume copies for high performance and availability
D. Extremely small recovery point objectives without the cost of full copies
Answer: D

4.Tike to create a point-in-time copy of their data ID be used by a performance-sensitive application
The customer would like to access that point-in-time copy at 3 A M. The amount of time required to copy the data from the source to targetis60 minutes.
Which time finder/clone solution you recommend?
A. Create a clone session with the copy option at or before 2AM
B. Activate the clone session at 3 A M Create a clone session with the.nocopy option at or before 2 AM.
C. Create a clone session with the precopy option at or before 2AM activate the clone session at 3 AM.
D. Create and activate a done session with Die background copy option at 3 A M
Answer: C

5.A customer would like to create a point-in-time copy of their data to be used by a performance-sensitive application. The customer would like to access that point-in-time copy at 3 A M.The amount of time required to copy the copy the data from the source to the target is 60 minutes. Which Time finder/Clone solution would you recommend?
A. Create a clone session with the copy option at or before 2 A.M. activate the clone session at 3 A.M.
B. Create a clone session with the no copy option at or before 2 A.M.
C. Create a clone session with the precopy option at or before 2 A.M. Activatethe clone session at 3 A.M.
D. Create and activate a clone session with the background copy option at 3 A.M.
Answer: C

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Latest EMC E20-540 Dumps

Networked Storage – NAS Specialist Exam: E20-540 Exam

  • E20-540 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-540
  • Exam Name: Networked Storage – NAS Specialist Exam
  • Q & A: 109 Q&As

1: What is a benefit of using ATA storage in NAS environment?
A.Low performance storage for OLTP applications
B.High performance storage for OLTP applications
C.High volume storage for high performance environment
D.High volume storage for low performance environments
Correct Answers: D

2: Which command is used to verify anti-virus functionality at the Data Mover?
A.server_av
B.server_setup
C.server_viruschk
D.server_antivirus
Correct Answers: C

3: Celerra quotas are turned off. How does that affect the existing user and group quota information?
A.it will be lost
B.is maintained
C.will still be active
D.becomes unavailable
Correct Answers: B

4: Which is used for centralized user and group management in a UNIX environment?
A.NIS
B.UFS
C.UDP
D.NTLM
Correct Answers: A

5: Which network component isolates network segments?
A.ISL
B.STP
C.VLAN
D.LACP
Correct Answers: C

6: Which two [2] methods allow access to the hidden “.ckpt” directory created by SnapSure?
A.Enter the entire path into Start > Run > \\server_x\SnapSure\ckpt
B.Browse to the .ckpt directory using Windows Explorer
C.Append .ckpt to the path shown when mapping a network drive.
D.Type the entire path directly into the Address bar in Windows Explorer
Correct Answers: A D
7: An NS700G is being installed which will be connected to both Symmetrix and CLARiiON storage. Based on best practices, where should the Celerra Control Volumes be placed?
A.CLARiiON
B.Symmetrix
C.Control Station
D.Either the Symmetrix or CLARiiON
Correct Answers: B

8: What is a new SnapSure feature in NAS 5.2?
A.Out of order deletion of Checkpoints
B.Multiple checkpoints of a single filesystem
C.Checkpoint restore with a single command
D.Uses a bitmap to track the location of changed data
Correct Answers: A

9: An unprotected disk containing Oracle binaries fails. What action needs to be taken when the database resides on Celerra?
A.None
B.Restart the Oracle DB
C.Reinstall the entire Oracle package
D.Initiate a Data Mover failback and restart the Oracle DB
Correct Answers: C

10: Which SRDF mode does a TimeFinder/FS Near Copy implementation use?
A.Near copy
B.Synchronous
C.Adaptive copy
D.Asynchronous
Correct Answers: B

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Latest EMC E20-501 Dumps

EMC Commercial Storage: E20-501 Exam

  • E20-501 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-501
  • Exam Name: EMC Commercial Storage
  • Q & A: 260 Q&As

1: Which EMC backup and recovery solution features out-of-the box integration with Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)?
A.Avamar
B.DiskXtender
C.NetWorker
D.RepliStor
Correct Answers: D

2: Which EMC backup and recovery solution replicates individual open and closed files, directories, and shares?
A.Avamar
B.DiskXtender
C.EMC Legato
D.RepliStor
Correct Answers: D

3: Which RecoverPoint feature provides local synchronous replication between LUNs that reside in one or more arrays at the same site?
A.CDP
B.CRR
C.RPA
D.RPSD
Correct Answers: A

4: Which protocol is used to connect the RecoverPoint Appliance and the storage array?
A.FCOE
B.Fibre
C.IP
D.iSCSI
Correct Answers: B

5: Which Replication Manager user role has the rights to restore replicas?
A.Database Administrator
B.Operator
C.Power Administrator
D.Power User
Correct Answers: A

6: How does SAN Copy, running on a CLARiiON system, identify other storage systems?
A.Domain ID
B.FCID
C.MAC address
D.World Wide Names
Correct Answers: D

7: You have a customer with a remote facility containing only three Windows servers. They recently had their backup tapes fail, and they would like to implement a solution that removes tape from the remote facility, minimizes bandwidth utilization, and keeps the data secure when traveling across the network. If possible, they would like to use existing Windows servers in their data center to replicate the data to. Which solution meets these requirements?
A.AutoStart
B.Avamar
C.Disk Library
D.RepliStor
Correct Answers: D

8: A customer needs a disaster recovery solution for their Exchange environment. They currently have one site running Exchange within a SAN using CX3-80 storage, and the other smaller Exchange site using DAS. They want to implement a remote recovery solution for Exchange. What solution will you recommend?
A.Replication Manager
B.RepliStor
C.SAN Copy
D.SnapView
Correct Answers: B

9: Your customer mentions an interest in providing virtualized environments on desktops and laptops of their development group. They ask several questions about the VMware products, including licensing. Which VMware product license is most appropriate for their interest?
A.VMware ESX Server
B.VMware Player
C.VMware Server
D.VMware Workstation
Correct Answers: D

10: Your customer is currently using RepliStor at their main data center. They would also like to use it to copy data from their remote offices to the main data center. Their main concern is data security when copying from the remote offices. What are the security features of RepliStor that would meet the customer’s data security need?
A.Connection, Digital Signature, Encryption
B.Digital Signature, Encryption, Data Verification
C.Encryption, Compression, Redundancy
D.Encryption, PKI, Masking
Correct Answers: A

11: A customer backs up their Windows servers to tape. They would like to complement these backups with the ability to provide disaster recovery protection in between backups, allowing only minutes of data loss as well as the ability to recover within minutes or hours. Which solution fits this requirement?
A.Avamar
B.Backup Advisor
C.Replication Manager
D.RepliStor
Correct Answers: D

12: A corporation recently acquired a secondary data center that is approximately 1,600 km from their primary data center location. The storage environment at the primary site consists of the following:
Windows and UNIX servers
CLARiiON storage system
10 TB of data to be replicated
T3 data link and 15-minute RPO
You are proposing a CLARiiON storage system for the secondary data center. Which EMC replication solution should you propose?
A.MirrorView/A
B.MirrorView/S
C.RecoverPoint CRR
D.RecoverPoint/SE
Correct Answers: C

13: XYZ Corporation has recently acquired a secondary data center that is approximately 800 km from its primary data center location. The storage environment at the primary site consists of the following:
Windows servers only
CLARiiON storage system
3 TB of data to be replicated
XYZ will purchase a CLARiiON system for the secondary data center, and they are looking for a scalable and cost-effective replication solution. Which EMC replication solution should you propose in this case?
A.MirrorView/A
B.MirrorView/S
C.RecoverPoint CRR
D.RecoverPoint/SE
Correct Answers: D

14: Your customer has been using a CLARiiON CX4 array for several months and has asked you to help them design a data replication solution to their offsite facility approximately 250 km away. Their current network infrastructure can only provide them the equivalent of a T1 connection to the second facility, and they are asking for an RPO of no more than 20 minutes. They need to replicate roughly 1.75 TB of data with a change rate of less than 10%. The solution must interoperate with Windows and Linux hosts, and maximize the limited bandwidth available to the customer today. What replication solution would you suggest?
A.MirrorView/A
B.RecoverPoint CDP
C.RecoverPoint/SE CRR
D.SAN Copy
Correct Answers: C

15: A customer has an existing production CX3-80 at their primary site and a CX3-20 at a remote site 2,000 km away. They have three dedicated DS3 and four T1 connections. They need to replicate their critical databases from the primary site to the remote site. The total size of the databases is over 5 TB. They are interested in a SAN-based method to move that much data. Their requirement is a RPO of seconds to minutes. They are currently negotiating a new WAN contract and are looking to reduce WAN bandwidth requirements. Which EMC solution do you recommend?
A.RecoverPoint CRR
B.RecoverPoint/SE
C.RepliStor
D.SAN Copy
Correct Answers: A

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Latest EMC E20-570 Dumps

Content Addressed Storage (CAS) Specialist Exam : E20-570 Exam

  • E20-570 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-570
  • Exam Name: Content Addressed Storage (CAS) Specialist Exam
  • Q & A: 74 Q&As

1. Which tool provides the diagnostics screens for the Centera?
A. CASScript
B. CenteraCLI
C. CenteraScript
D. CenteraViewer
Answer: D

2. What is a method for setting retention at the object level?
A. API
B. HPP
C. MOPI
D. Control Center
Answer: A

3. A customer wants to enable application profiles in their environment. Their application does NOT natively support application profile use. How does this windows application specify a path to the application security profile?
A. Have the application access the root profile on the Centera
B. Application keeps the security profile as part of the metadata
C. Create a profile and place it in the ini file of the application; then restart the application
D. Add the CENTERA_PEA_LOCATION environment variable to the windows application server
Answer: D

4. Click the Exhibit button. From the exhibit, identify component A.
A. Node
B. Cube switch
C. Battery backup
D. External switch
Answer: B

5. A customer with CE+ needs many different retention periods but their application does NOT support a native integration of the API. How does a customer meet this requirement?
A. Migrate all data to a native application
B. All data will have an infinite retention period
C. It is impossible to use retention periods for non-native applications
D. Use a filesystem-based gateway with different retention periods set on each shared folder
Answer: D

6. How does fixed content differ from backup data?
A. Fixed content is a subset of backup data
B. Fixed content has long-term reference value
C. Backup data sets are a subset of fixed content
D. Backup data sets can include multiple revisions of a file while Fixed content is WORM data
Answer: B

7. What is required to store data on the Centera?
A. Centera API
B. Centera CLI
C. CenteraViewer
D. Centera store software
Answer: A

8. How would a PC be connected to a CUA if a standard monitor and keyboard were not available onsite?
A. Via crossover serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 7 1 Even
B. Via crossover serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 8 1 None
C. Via straight through serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 7 1 Even
D. Via straight through serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 8 1 None
Answer: B

9. How long does content reside on a CUA before it is written to a Centera?
A. One minute, depending on system load
B. Typically 45 minutes or when cache is full
C. Content is immediately written to the Centera
D. Content is not written directly to the Centera by the CUA
Answer: B

10. Which protection scheme provides maximum useable storage?
A. CPM
B. CPP
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 1/0
Answer: B

11. Click the Exhibit button. What is the BLOB?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

12. Which algorithm is used to help calculate the content address?
A. API
B. MD5
C. MOBI
D. SHA-1
Answer: B

13. What is required to link two (2) Centera cabinets in one (1) cluster?
A. ATS
B. Root switches
C. Media converter
D. Gigabit uplink modules
Answer: D

14. How is the Centera connected to the mainframe? 1. ESCON 2. HTTP 3. FICON 4. TCPIP
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: C

15. Which vendors offer gateway software for the Centera?
A. Microsoft, SAP, Onyx, Dell
B. IBM, Lotus, FileNet, StorageTek
C. Legato, EMC, SevenTen, Arkivio, Enigma
D. Powerfile, Oracle, Mobius, Princeton Softech
Answer: C

16. Which objects are replicated when replication is enabled?
A. All objects
B. Only CDFs
C. Only data BLOBs
D. Only objects greater than 250K
Answer: A

17. A customer’s application groups objects into a single container before writing them to the Centera. The customer is using a Centera CE+. Half of the objects should be kept for 3 years, and the remainder for 7 years. Which retention period should the customer set on the container to protect their data?
A. Do not set the retention period
B. Set the retention period to 3 years
C. Set the retention period to 7 years
D. Set the retention period to 50% 3 year, and 50% 7 year.
Answer: C

18. Which troubleshooting utilities are available for the Centera?
A. Centera Verify and Telnet
B. Ping and CenteraIPconfig
C. CenteraPing and CenteraVerify
D. CenteraViewer and PingCentera
Answer: C

19. What is the purpose of Centera Verify?
A. Verify a completed write
B. Verify Centera ead and write?performance
C. Verify availability of the Centera for writes, reads and deletes
D. Verify availability of the target Centera in a replicated environment
Answer: C

20. A customer is required to keep dental records for seven years. Which edition of Centera is
recommended?
A. Basic
B. Compliance
C. Enhanced basic
D. Compliance plus
Answer: B

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Latest EMC E20-322 Dumps

Technology Architect Solutions Design: E20-322 Exam

  • E20-322 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-322
  • Exam Name: Technology Architect Solutions Design
  • Q & A: 122 Q&As

1: A customer is deploying a new Microsoft Exchange environment and has requested assistance with the associated disk design. They are deploying Exchange for 850 users with an average of 3 I/Os per user. They expect a 60% read and 40% write distribution. The customer would like to know the number of disks required for both RAID 5 and RAID 1/0 DMX configurations with 15k rpm drives. How many disks are required for each configuration type?
A.RAID 5 28 and RAID 1/0 18
B.RAID 5 31 and RAID 1/0 20
C.RAID 5 38 and RAID 1/0 24
D.RAID 5 43 and RAID 1/0 28
Correct Answers: A

2: A customer plans to create two regional offices that are between 800 and 2,000 km away from their main data center. Each regional office will have a data center that will serve four to six branch offices between 30 and 50 km away. At the close of business each evening the customer will shut down the application and transmit changes to each regional office. The amount of new information sent from the head office each night will vary from 0.5 and 1.5 GB. Later each night, an application at the regional offices will read the data from the head office and generate approximately 50 MB of new rate information appropriate for its branch offices. What is the most cost-effective EMC solution?
A.1. Configure CLARiiON arrays in each office.
2. Use MirrorView/A and T3 networks for all data transfers.
B.1. Configure Symmetrix arrays in the head office and CLARiiONs in the regional offices.
2. Use OC-3 networks to transmit the same master copy of data from the head office to the regional offices using Open Replicator.
3. At the regional offices, create a snap of the data received and transmit the changes to the branch offices using SAN Copy.
C.1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at all the main data centers and CLARiiONs at the regional and branch offices.
2. Use OC-3 network links between the main data centers.
3. Use DS-3 between the regional and branch offices.
4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case.
D.1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices.
2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices.
3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices.
4. Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices using T1 network links.
Correct Answers: D

3: A customer decided to consolidate their storage onto a Symmetrix. They have a mix of Windows and UNIX servers and want one copy of data for creating backups each night. They also want another copy to be made during the day. This second copy will be a standby to perform a fast recovery in the event of data corruption. The initial survey of the customer environment shows that the read/write ratio of their application is 1. 2 during the day and 5. 1 at night. The application appears to be highly sensitive to disk response times during the day. Which initial solution should be considered?
A.TimeFinder/Clones for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for backups at night
B.TimeFinder/Snap for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Clone for backups at night
C.TimeFinder/Snap for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for backups at night
D.TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Snaps for backups at night
Correct Answers: D

4: A customer has implemented a second Brocade director into their environment. They have moved several hosts and one of their two storage arrays onto the new director. When a large batch cycle was run, the customer experienced queuing on the directors when previously there was none. The customer discovered the following during their analysis of the issue. The hosts running the batch cycle used storage from both arrays. The only LUNs having problems came from the array attached to the new director. When the batch process was re-run with all LUNs made available through the original director, no problems were encountered. What would you recommend to solve the performance problem?
A.Add departmental switches to the fabric, creating a core/edge design
B.Change FSPF costs
C.Implement additional Brocade ISLs
D.Utilize Brocade ISL Trunking to optimize the ISL traffic
Correct Answers: D

5: You are designing an EMC ControlCenter solution for a new customer to reduce the overall storage and management costs. The customer would like management and reporting on a variety of hosts and storage systems. All managed objects are located in one data center. Which factors must you consider when designing an EMC ControlCenter infrastructure?
A.Network firewall type, number of hosts, and total storage capacity
B.Network firewall type, number of IP switches, and number of Fibre Channel switches
C.Network latency, number of Exchange servers, and number of Oracle database
D.Network latency, number of hosts, and number of arrays
Correct Answers: D

6: A customer has a SAN fabric consisting of several MDS-9509s for host to disk array connectivity. They have purchased a Fibre Channel tape library and want to implement LAN-free backups. You have proposed making a tape VSAN on the existing MDS infrastructure and have recommended that they use QoS so that tape I/O does not use ISL bandwidth at the expense of disk I/O. Which license is needed on the MDS directors?
A.Enterprise package
B.Fabric Manager Server
C.Storage Services Enabler package
D.Tape Write Acceleration package
Correct Answers: A

7: Using SAN Copy, a source Windows LUN of 100 GB has been copied to a 200 GB target LUN. After assigning the target LUN to the new host and running Disk Administrator to recognize the drive,what must be done to the Windows partition on the new host to see the LUN as 100 GB?
A.Nothing; the partition will be seen as 100 GB immediately
B.Run diskpart and set the partition size to 100 GB
C.Run the diskpar command and set the partition size to 100 GB
D.Run the format command and set the partition size to 100 GB
Correct Answers: A

8: A prospective customer has presented you with multiple applications. All applications have high write activity levels and unpredictable growth patterns. The applications are currently hosted on direct attached storage in a RAID 1 configuration. They are concerned with making too many changes at one time in their environment. The prospect has asked you to justify your recommendation of RAID 1/0 on the CLARiiON configuration you are proposing. How do you respond to the request?
A.RAID 1 has a higher write penalty than RAID 1/0
B.RAID 1 is less flexible for growing LUNs than RAID 1/0
C.RAID 1 is unavailable in current CLARiiON configurations
D.RAID 1 LUNs are unable to utilize write cache
Correct Answers: B

9: After you have a fully replicated copy on the BCVs that contain an Oracle database, which two files need to be incrementally copied in order to have a consistent database?
A.Archive log and redo files
B.Control and archive log files
C.Data and redo files
D.Redo and control files
Correct Answers: D

10: A customer currently manages their DMX environment with symcli within the storage group. They are instituting a third-shift operations group with minimal symcli experience. Third shift will perform storage tasks such as device creation, device mapping, and LUN masking. Which solution fits this expanding business requirement and organizational change?
A.StorageScope with StorageScope FLR
B.StorageScope without StorageScope FLR
C.Symmetrix Management Console
D.Symmetrix Manager
Correct Answers: C

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Latest EMC E20-820 Dumps

CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects: E20-820 Exam

  • E20-820 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-820
  • Exam Name: CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 132 Q&As

1: CE Casinos, Inc. has an application that gathers statistics from slot machines and saves the data to a CLARiiON LUN. Because I/O sizes are small, typically 8 KB or smaller, and the access pattern is very random, RAID-1/0 was chosen for the LUN, which is 512 GB in size.  I/Os are consistent at 100 writes/s for 24 hours a day.  This LUN must be replicated to a CX400 at a test site 10 km away for read-only data analysis. Data collection occurs between 8 am and 8 pm, and the analysis runs from midnight until 4 am. The link between sites is a dedicated 90 Mbps connection. What is the best solution for the customer’s needs?
A.Take a SnapView Snapshot of the Production LUN at 8 pm each night, and use SAN Copy to perform a full copy to the remote site. Stop the Session once analysis is complete.
B.Clone the Production LUN. Fracture the Clone at 8 pm each night, and use SAN Copy to perform a full copy to the remote site. Resynchronize the Clone once analysis is complete.
C.Mirror the Production LUN. Fracture the Mirror at 8 pm each night, and use a SnapView Snapshot of the secondary image for analysis. Resynchronize the Mirror once analysis starts.
D.Clone the Production LUN. Fracture the Clone at 8 pm each night, and use Incremental SAN Copy to perform a copy to the remote site. Resynchronize the Clone once analysis is complete.
E.Use Incremental SAN Copy to a remote LUN with the Production LUN as the source, and run the update at 8 pm each night. Use a Snapshot of the remote LUN for the analysis. Stop the SnapView Session once the analysis completes.
Correct Answers: C

2: BGH, Ltd, located close to Heathrow Airport in London is considering implementing a Disaster Recovery solution. The business requires the utmost data availability and can afford only minimal downtime should a disaster occur. The solution’s RTO should be considered in seconds to minutes and the RPO should be zero to minimal data loss. BGH currently uses a CLARiiON CX500 at the airport site and plans to install a DWDM link to its remote office 25 kilometers away. BGH also intends to utilize Legato AAM (Automated Availability Manager) to ensure speedy resumption of processing at the remote site. Which replication product would you recommend if BGH purchases a CX500 for the remote site?
A.SAN Copy
B.MirrorView
C.MirrorView A
D.Incremental SAN Copy
Correct Answers: B

3: When implementing SAN Copy Incremental over long-distances and the link latency is unknown, which setting will measure latency by sending test I/O to the destination?
A.Set Latency to Auto
B.Set Latency to Test
C.Set Link Bandwidth Auto
D.Set Latency to the lowest setting
Correct Answers: A

4: CTM, Ltd wants to use SAN Copy over IP with a McData 3300 FC/IP bridge. After completing the design, you notice that the CTM will have bandwidth problems due to the amount of data transferred in push mode over 10 Mb/s lines. The SAN Copy I/O size will be 512KB and the cable load time is 0.425 second. CTM cannot increase its bandwidth. Which feature can improve the amount of data transferred between two sites?
A.Set the number of default sessions to 4
B.Enable the Fast Write feature on the McData device
C.Set the Throttle value to 10 for all SAN Copy sessions
D.Change the SAN Copy buffer size value to 2048 blocks
Correct Answers: B

5: Your customer wants to add an additional Storage Group to its existing Exchange environment. You calculated its database uses 20 spindles. How many spindles should you allocate for its Log LUNs?
A.2
B.5
C.6
D.8
Correct Answers: A

6: Click the Exhibit button.
Review the replication solution shown in the graphic.  In the event of production data corruption, which best describes the required steps to recover production data from the remote Snapshot?

A.Unmount production LUNs, roll back Snap, restore mirror, mount production LUNs
B.Unmount production LUNs, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote mirror, mount production LUNs
C.Unmount production LUNs, promote mirror, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote mirror, mount production LUNs
D.Unmount production LUNs, roll back Snap ,promote mirror, fracture, synchronize, promote mirror, mount production LUNs
Correct Answers: C

7: You need to design a SAN Copy solution for performance. Data will be copied from a source CX700 to a target CX700. The two arrays are attached to the same SAN. There are a total of four source LUNs to be copied to four target LUNs. Single initiator zoning has been created for SAN Copy to include all ports on both CX700 arrays. Initial SAN Copy session settings are as follows:
Throttle level of 10
Buffer size of 2048 Blocks
How do you configure this SAN Copy implementation to ensure maximum throughput?
A.Change Throttle Level to zero and Buffer Size to 512 Blocks
B.Create a separate SAN Copy session for each source LUN and run one SAN Copy session at a time
C.Create a separate SAN Copy session for each source LUN and run all SAN Copy sessions simultaneously
D.Create one SAN Copy session and change zoning from single initiator to one large zone which includes all SP ports on both arrays
Correct Answers: C

8: The BMU Company runs an application with several LUNs that it wants to replicate remotely. You obtain the following information:
There are five 4+1 RAID-5 LUNs of 256 GB each
There are two RAID-1/0 LUNs of 128 GB each
The application uses 4 KB random I/Os on the RAID-5 LUNs, with a read/write ratio of 4:1
On the RAID-1/0 LUNs, the application writes sequential 4 KB I/Os, with no reads
Each LUN is on its own RAID Group, consisting of 146 GB drives
Average seek distance on the RAID-5 LUNs is 35 GB
Average seek distance on the RAID-1/0 LUNs is 0 GB
Each RAID-5 LUN performs 400 IOPs
Each RAID-1/0 LUN performs 500 IOPs
RPO is 30 minutes Assume a 2:1 compression ratio for all data.
What is the link speed needed to connect the MirrorView/A sites?
A.52 Mbps
B.104 Mbps
C.156 Mbps
D.208 Mbps
Correct Answers: A

9: Volume Managers allow the use of plaids on the CLARiiON. The primary performance impact is the manner in which CLARiiON LUNs are striped. Which two [2] points must be considered?
A.Plaids are only useful when the overlying applications are multi-threaded
B.Use host based RAID implementations that do not require parity calculation
C.Use host based RAID implementations that require parity calculation (i.e. RAID-3, RAID-5)
D.LUNs should not be plaid together from RAID groups with different RAID types or stripe sizes
E.The host manager stripe element size has to be equal to, or smaller than the CLARiiON LUN stripe size
Correct Answers: B D

10: CDF Inc. wants to purchase a CLARiiON array to add to its SAN.  Path Failover and Load Balancing are requirements. CDF already owns and uses DMP on its Symmetrix.  What are two [2] solutions you would recommend?
A.Dual HBAs with no cross zoning and DMP
B.Dual HBAs with no cross zoning and PowerPath
C.Multiple HBAs,  Multi-path with cross zoning utilizing four FC ports per SP, and DMP
D.Dual HBAs, Multi-path with cross zoning utilizing two FC ports per SP, and PowerPath
E.Multiple HBAs, Multi-path with cross zoning utilizing four FC ports per SP, and PowerPath
Correct Answers: D E

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Latest EMC E20-520 Dumps

alriion Solutions Specialist Exam: E20-520 Exam

  • E20-520 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-520
  • Exam Name: Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam
  • Q & A: 192 Q&As

1: Which Navisphere Event Monitor model uses an SP agent to monitor only the storage system on which the SP agent resides?
A.Individual
B.Enterprise
C.Distributed
D.Centralized
Correct Answers: C

2: THB Corporation has a database consisting of one log LUN and four data LUNs. The company plans to mirror the database to two remote locations with MirrorView/S. How should it plan to maintain the consistency of the database?
A.Create a MirrorView/S consistency group, and ensure that all five mirrors are members of the consistency group
B.Consistency cannot be maintained with MirrorView/S. They should consider MirrorView/A with consistency groups
C.Consistency cannot be maintained because MirrorView/S does not support consistency groups with two secondary images
D.Consistency cannot be maintained because MirrorView/S does not support consistency groups where log LUNs are members
Correct Answers: C

3: What is a valid Navisphere CLI command?
A.navicli getlun -h 192.168.2.125
B.navicli -d 192.168.2.125 getlun -rg
C.navicli -h 192.168.2.125 getlun -rg
D.java.jar navicli -address 192.168.2.16 metalun -list
Correct Answers: C

4: The CFM Corporation believes its data is going through the wrong switch in the fabric. They put a protocol analyzer online to capture the output. Where should they look to see if the data is being routed incorrectly?
A.The fourth byte of the destination WWPN
B.The eighth byte of the destination WWPN
C.The first byte of the destination Fibre Channel address
D.The second byte of the destination Fibre Channel address
Correct Answers: C

5: Which option is selectable in the Create RAID Group dialogue box?
A.RAID Type
B.RAID Group ID
C.Enable Write Cache
D.Manual Destroy after LUN is unbound
Correct Answers: B

6: What is one way a Snapshot provides a “point-in-time” view of a source LUN?
A.By writing the new data to the Reserved LUN pool each time it changes
B.By writing the new data to the Reserved LUN pool the first time it changes
C.By copying the original data to the Reserved LUN pool the first time it changes
D.By limiting the number of Snapshots to eight that can be assigned to a LUN at the same time
Correct Answers: C

7: What is an attribute of a Clone Private LUN?
A.Contains Fracture Logs
B.Contains Write Intent Logs
C.Must be the same RAID type as the source LUN
D.Shared by both storage processors simultaneously
Correct Answers: A

8: The VisualSRM agent installation can be performed locally on each host. What other method can be used for installation?
A.pkgadd utility
B.Pull installation
C.Push installation
D.At system reboot
Correct Answers: C

9: What is a characteristic of Event Monitor?
A.Integrated with Navisphere Manager
B.Loaded as a separately purchased NDU
C.Monitors for hardware-related events only
D.Monitors only for Navisphere defined events
Correct Answers: A

10: Which function is disabled when PowerPath is installed without a license key?
A.Failover
B.Multipathing
C.LUNZ functionality
D.Access to peer SP paths
Correct Answers: B

11: Which feature does the PowerPath GUI provide to users?
A.Change the failover policy of a LUN
B.Change the CLARiiON SP from active to standby
C.Provide the CLARiiON with active-active failover policy
D.PowerPath is required for a host to connect to a storage group
Correct Answers: A

12: Which feature best describes the PSM LUN on the CX series?
A.Each SP accesses its own copy
B.Default size is 2GB on a CX array
C.Not viewable in Navisphere Manager
D.Created after array initialization by the user
Correct Answers: C

13: In an Emulex HBA Solaris host Installation, which file is edited to force the host to perform a Fabric login to a switch?
A.sd.conf
B.lpfc.conf
C.lputil.conf
D./etc/system
Correct Answers: B

14: What is a feature of Access Logix?
A.LUN Masking
B.Controls access to data through file locking
C.Masks host WWNs via Access Control lists
D.Restricts one host at a time to accessing one LUN at a time
Correct Answers: A

15: How does a SAN Copy session failover upon SP failure?
A.Automatically, via PowerPath
B.Manually, via user intervention
C.Conditionally, via host intervention
D.Automatically, via storage system redundancy
Correct Answers: B

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Latest EMC E20-329 Dumps

Technology Architect Backup Recovery Solutions Design Exam: E20-329 Exam

  • E20-329 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-329
  • Exam Name: Technology Architect Backup Recovery Solutions Design Exam
  • Q & A: 79 Q&As

1.An EMC Avamar customer s Gen-1 system with 4 TB of GSAN capacity has reached read-only
threshold. The customer indicates that the deduplicated backup data accounts for approximately 3.5 TB.
What is the most likely cause for the read-only threshold being reached?
A. Deduplication rate is less than expected, accounting for the remaining GSAN capacity
B. Combination of system overhead, logs, and checkpoints account for the remaining GSAN capacity
C. RAIN overhead accounts for the remaining available GSAN capacity
D. Checkpoints and logs account for the remaining GSAN capacity
Answer: C

2.A customer has an operational EMC NetWorker enviroment using an Avamar deduplication node. They want to protect the Avamar deduplication node using replication. The customer has approached EMC for advice on what considerations thaey should take into account.
What is a consideration in this envitonment.?
A. NetWorker automatically configures all replication targets associated with a given deduplication node
B. Scheduled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in Avamar
C. Recovery from the replications node must be performed from Avamar Administror
D. Schedled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in NetWorkwe
Answer: B

3.The EMC account team has been asked to design a NetWorkwwe backup solution with the following requirements.
1. One copy of backup data needs to be stored locally.
2. An additional copy of backup data needs to be stored on tape at an offsite location.
What should be done to satisfy the new regulations with minimal impact to the current backup
performance?
A. Clone to tape and send the clone copy to the remote location
B. Back up the data concurrently to the remote and local locations
C. Archive the backup data to the remote location
D. Archive the data to the remote location before being backed up locally
Answer: C

4.An organization is backing up a combination of databases, e-mail, and file system data types in their data center to a Data Domain appliance using a single backup server. The backup system administrator creates separate subdirectories for each of the three data types under the default share.
What benefit is provided by this approach?
A. Analyze compression with more granularity
B. Simplity backup device configuration
C. Enhance performance of the database backup
D. Improve file system cleaning performance
Answer: B

5.Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
Acustomer has a new Avamar server with four 2 TB data nodes. This server is backing up two Avamar clients. The first client has 8 GB of RAM and two file systems. The first file system has 3 million files consuming. 75 TB. The second file system contains 5 million files consuming 1 TB of space.
The second client has 10 GB of RAM and one file system containing 4 million files consuming 1.2 TB of space. Both clients will belong to the same backup group. How long will the steady-state backup group be expected to run?
A. 5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 Hours
Answer: B

7.As illustrated in the exhibit, a customer has a backup environment that includes clients and server managed by a backup media server. Data is written to a primary storage device and archived to an application server. The customer has onsite retention strorage, which is replicated to a disaster recovery site. In addition, archive-to-tape is requires.
Which components would you replace when initiating a Data Domain solution?
A. onsite retention storage and offsite disaster recivery storage
B. Backup media server and clients
C. Primary storage and onsite retention storage
D. Backup media server and archive application server
Answer: A

8.A customer has a Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity. The customer does not want to purchase any additional storage.
Wht will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Increase the snapshot expiration period
C. Increase the nurrter of strearns
D. Decrease the cleaning frequency
Answer: A

9.Acustomer is piloting a Data Domain appliance and notices that performance in the writing of backups is not optimal. Based on the System Show Performance metrics represented in the exhibit, which operation will provide the most improved the most improved performance?
A. Reduce the read streams
B. Suspend verification
C. Disable cleaning
D. Disable replication
Answer: A

10.A customer is using Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to moitor their backup enviroment. What is a benefit of using remote Collectors?
A. Reduces the amount of information being transferred to the DPA server
B. Collects system-related statistics for a given host
C. Improves the collection performance of backup statistics
D. Provides more complete backup reports
Answer: B

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