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Passed Cisco 642-874 Exam with Pass4sure and Lead2pass PDF & VCE (31-40)

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is true concerning best design practices at the switched Access layer of the traditional layer2 Enterprise Campus Network?

A.    Cisco NSF with SSO and redundant supervisors has the most impact on the campus in the Access layer
B.    Provide host-level redundancy by connecting each end device to 2 separate Access switches
C.    Offer default gateway redundancy by using dual connections from Access switches to redundant
Distribution layer switches using a FHRP
D.    Include a link between two Access switches to support summarization of routing information from
the Access to the Distribution layer

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which protocol will not adhere to the design requirement of the control plane being either separated or combined within a virtualization technology?

A.    FHRP
B.    STP
C.    CEF
D.    NSF with SSO

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which of the following features might be used by the Enterprise Campus network designer as a means of route filtering?

A.    IPv4 static routes
B.    Route tagging using a route map in an ACL
C.    Tagging routes using the BGP MED
D.    EIGRP stub networks

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
The network designer needs to consider the number of multicast applications and sources in the
network to provide the most robust network possible. Which of the following is a consideration the designer must also address?

A.    The IGPs should utilize authentication to avoid being the most vulnerable component
B.    With SSM source or receiver attacks are not possible
C.    With Shared Trees access control is always applied at the RP
D.    Limit the rate of Register messages to the RP to prevent specific hosts from being attacked on a
PIM-SM network

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
When considering the design of the E-Commerce topology which of the following are true?

A.    One-armed SLB design with multiple security contexts removes the need for a separate firewall in
the core layer
B.    Two-firewall-layer SLB design considers the aggregation and access layers to be trusted zones,
requiring no security between the web, application, and database zones
C.    One-armed SLB design with two firewall layers ensures that non load-balanced traffic still traverses
the ACE so that the health and performance of the servers is still being monitored
D.    In all cases there will be configuration requirements for direct access to any servers or for nonload-balanced
sessions initiated by the servers

Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Distinct, physical redundancy within a network layer is a key characteristic that contributes to the high availability of the hierarchical network design. Which of the following is not an examples of this model?

A.    SAN extension with dual fabrics such as a yellow VSAN and a blue VSAN utilized via multipath software
B.    Redundant power supplies and hot-swappable fan trays in Aggregate switches
C.    A single SAN fabric with redundant uplinks and switches
D.    Servers using network adapter teaming software connected to dual-attached access switches

Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which four Cisco proprietary Spanning Tree Protocol enhancements are supported with rapid per- VLAN Spanning-Tree plus? (Choose four.)

A.    PortFast
B.    UplinkFast
C.    loop guard
D.    root guard
E.    BPDU guard
F.    BackboneFast

Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 38
Which two of these are correct regarding the recommended practice for distribution layer design? (Choose two.)

A.    use a redundant link to the core
B.    use a Layer 2 link between distribution switches
C.    never use a redundant link to the core because of convergence issues
D.    use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches with route summarization
E.    use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches without route summarization

Answer: AD

QUESTION 39
Which three of these Metro service types map to E-Line (versus E-LAN) services that are defined by the Metro Ethernet Forum (MEF)? (Choose three.)

A.    Ethernet Private Line
B.    Ethernet Wire Service
C.    Ethernet Relay Service
D.    Ethernet Multipoint Service
E.    Ethernet Relay Multipoint Service

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 40
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)

A.    only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B.    only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C.    only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D.    only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E.    the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F.    the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses

Answer: AF

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Passed Cisco 642-874 Exam with Pass4sure and Lead2pass PDF & VCE (21-30)

QUESTION 21
There are 3 steps to confirm whether a range of IP addresses can be summarized. Which of the
following is used in each of these 3 steps?

A.    The first number in the contiguous block of addresses
B.    The last number in the contiguous block of addresses
C.    The size of the contiguous block of addresses
D.    The subnet mask of the original network address

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
A well-designed IP addressing scheme supporting role-based functions within the subnet will result in the most efficient use of which technology?

A.    Layer 3 switching in the core
B.    Network Admission Control (NAC)
C.    IP telephony (voice and video) services
D.    ACLs

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is true regarding the effect of EIGRP queries on the network design?

A.    EIGRP queries will be the most significant issue with respect to stability and convergence
B.    EIGRP queries are not a consideration as long as EIGRP has a feasible successor with a next hop AD
that is greater than the FD of the current successor route
C.    EIGRP queries will only increase the convergence time when there are no EIGRP stubs designed in
the network

Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is a result when designing multiple EIGRP autonomous systems within the Enterprise Campus network?

A.    Improves scalability by dividing the network using summary routes at AS boundaries
B.    Decreases complexity since EIGRP redistribution is automatically handled in the background
C.    Reduces the volume of EIGRP queries by limiting them to one EIGRP AS
D.    Scaling is improved when a unique AS is run at the Access, Distribution, and Core layers of the network

Answer: A

QUESTION 25
When designing the routing for an Enterprise Campus network it is important to keep which of the following route filtering aspects in mind?

A.    Filtering is only useful when combined with route summarization
B.    It is best to filter (allow) the default and summary prefixes only in the Enterprise Edge to remote sites
or site-to-site IPsec VPN networks
C.    IGPs (for example EIGRP or OSPF) are superior to route filtering in avoiding inappropriate transit traffic
through remote nodes or inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates
D.    The primary limitation of router filtering is that it can only be applied on outbound updates

Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which statement is the most accurate regarding IPsec VPN design for an Enterprise Campus environment?

A.    VPN device IP addressing must align with the existing Campus addressing scheme.
B.    The choice of a hub-and-spoke or meshed topology ultimately depends on the number of remotes.
C.    Sizing and selection of the IPsec VPN headend devices is most affected by the throughput bandwidth
requirements for the remote offices and home worker
D.    Scaling considerations such as headend configuration, routing protocol choice, and topology have the
broadest impact on the design.

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Nexus 1000V in the VMware vSphere solution effectively creates an additional access layer in the virtualized data center network; which of the following 1000V characteristics can the designer take advantage of?

image

A.    Offloads the STP requirement from the external Access layer switches
B.    If upstream access switches do not support vPC or VSS the dual-homed ESX host traffic can still be
distributed using virtual port channel host mode using subgroups automatically discovered through CDP
C.    Allows transit traffic to be forwarded through the ESX host between VMNICs
D.    Can be divided into multiple virtual device contexts for service integration, enhanced security, administrative
boundaries, and flexibility of deployment

Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which unique characteristics of the Data Center Aggregation layer must be considered by an Enterprise Campus designer?

A.    Layer 3 routing between the Access and Aggregation layers facilitates the ability to span VLANs across
multiple access switches, which is a requirement for many server virtualization and clustering technologies.
B.    "East-west" server-to-server traffic can travel between aggregation modules by way of the core, but backup
and replication traffic typically remains within an aggregation module.
C.    Load balancing, firewall services, and other network services are commonly integrated by the use of service
modules that are inserted in the aggregation switches.
D.    Virtualization tools allow a cost effective approach for redundancy in the network design by using two or four
VDCs from the same physical switch.

Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Support of vPC on the Cisco Nexus 5000 access switch enables various new design options for the data center Access layer, including which of the following?

A.    The vPC peer link is not required for Access layer control traffic, and can instead be used to span VLANs
across the vPC access switches
B.    A single switch can associate per-interface with more than one vPC domain
C.    vPC can be used on both sides of the MEC, allowing a unique 16-link EtherChannel to be built between
the access and aggregation switches
D.    Allows an EtherChannel between a server and a access switch while still maintaining the level of availability
that is associated with dual-homing a server to two different access switches

Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which technology is an example of the need for a designer to clearly define features and desired performance when designing advanced WAN services with a service provider?

A.    FHRP to remote branches
B.    Layer 3 MPLS VPNs secure routing
C.    Control protocols (for example Spanning Tree Protocol) for a Layer 3 MPLS service
D.    Intrusion prevention, QoS, and stateful firewall support network wide

Answer: B

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QUESTION 11
OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should be considered when utilizing OSPF stub areas? (Choose two)

A.    OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs
B.    OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization
C.    OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes
D.    OSPF totally stubby areas cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the area
E.    OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain

Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which two protocol characteristics should be most considered when designing a single unified fabric for the Data Center? (Choose two.)

A.    FCIP or FCoE allow for easier integration by using the Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP) and Fibre Channel framing
B.    iSCSI uses a special EtherType and an additional header containing additional control information
C.    FCIP and iSCSI has higher overhead than FCoE owing to TCP/IP
D.    FCoE was initially developed to be used as a switch-to-switch protocol, while FCIP is primarily meant to
be used as an access layer protocol to connect hosts and storage to a Fibre Channel SAN
E.    FCoE requires gateway functionality to integrate into an existing Fibre Channel network

Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Drag the best practice recommendation for an Enterprise Campus network on the left to the technology to which it most applies on the right.

image
Answer:

image 

QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop Questions

image
Answer:

image 

QUESTION 15
Drag and Drop Questions

image
Answer:

image 

QUESTION 16
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?

A.    FlexLinks
B.    loop-free U
C.    looped square
D.    looped triangle
E.    loop-free inverted U

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct?

A.    N_Port to N_Port connections use logical node connection points.
B.    Flow control is only provided by QoS.
C.    It must be implemented in an arbitrated loop.
D.    Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus.

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
In base e-Commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?

A.    core layer
B.    Internet boundary
C.    aggregation layer
D.    aggregation and core layers
E.    access and aggregation layers

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
The Cisco Nexus 1000V is intended to address which disadvantage of the VMware vSphere solution?

A.    Inability to deploy new functional servers without requiring physical changes on the network
B.    Complexity added by the requirement for an ESX host for each virtual machine
C.    Network administrators lack control of the access layer of the network
D.    To increase the number of physical infrastructure and the virtual machines that can be managed

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
With respect to address summarization, which of the following statements concerning IPv4 and IPv6 is true?

A.    The potential size of the IPv6 address blocks suggests that address summarization favors IPv6 over IPv4.
B.    Role based addressing using wildcard masks to match multiple subnets is suitable for IPv4, but unsuitable
for IPv6.
C.    In order to summarize, the number of subnets in the IPv4 address block should be a power of 2 while the
number of subnets in the IPv6 address block should be a power of 64.
D.    WAN link addressing best supports summarization with a /126 subnet for IPv4 and a /31 for IPv6.

Answer: B

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Passed Cisco 642-874 Exam with Pass4sure and Lead2pass PDF & VCE (1-10)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an Enterprise Campus network?

A.    Because the IP phone is a three-port switch, IP telephony extends the network edge, impacting the
Distribution layer.
B.    Video and voice are alike in being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to
be lossless, and have minimized delay and jitter.
C.    IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security policies must be based on upper layer
traffic characteristics.
D.    Though multi-VLAN access ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Addressing QoS design in the Enterprise Campus network for IP Telephony applications means what?

A.    It is critical to identify aggregation and rate transition points in the network, where preferred traffic and
congestion QoS policies should be enforced
B.    Suspect traffic should be dropped closest to the source, to minimize wasting network resources
C.    An Edge traffic classification scheme should be mapped to the downstream queue configuration
D.    Applications and Traffic flows should be classified, marked and policed within the Enterprise Edge of the
Enterprise Campus network

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The requirement for high availability within the Data Center network may cause the designer to consider which one of the following solutions?

A.    Construct a hierarchical network design using EtherChannel between a server and two VDCs from the
same physical switch
B.    Utilize Cisco NSF with SSO to provide intrachassis SSO at Layers 2 to 4
C.    Define the Data Center as an OSPF NSSA area, advertising a default route into the DC and summarizing
the routes out of the NSSA to the Campus Core
D.    Implement network services for the Data Center as a separate services layer using an active/active model
that is more predictable in failure conditions

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When designing remote access to the Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile workers, which of the following should the designer consider?

A.    It is recommended to place the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge firewall, with
ingress traffic limited to SSL only
B.    Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an internal firewall drawn from a
headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment
C.    VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended when
the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place
D.    Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or thick), including
at Layer7

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three statements about firewall modes are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    A firewall in routed mode has one IP address.
B.    A firewall in transparent mode has one IP address.
C.    In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device.
D.    In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device.
E.    In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device.
F.    In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
Which two of these correctly describe asymmetric routing and firewalls? (Choose two.)

A.    only operational in routed mode
B.    only operational in transparent mode
C.    only eight interfaces can belong to an asymmetric routing group
D.    operational in both failover and non-failover configurations
E.    only operational when the firewall has been configured for failover

Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Which of the following two statements about Cisco NSF and SSO are the most relevant to the network designer? (Choose two.)

A.    You can reduce outages to 1 to 3 seconds by using SSO in a Layer 2 environment or Cisco NSF with
SSO in a Layer 3 environment.
B.    SSO and NSF each require the devices to either be graceful restart-capable or graceful restart- aware.
C.    In a fully redundant topology adding redundant supervisors with NSF and SSO may cause longer convergence
times than single supervisors with tuned IGP timers
D.    The primary deployment scenario for Cisco NSF with SSO is in the Distribution and Core layers.
E.    Cisco NSF-aware neighbor relationships are independent of any tuned IGP timers

Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following two are advantages of Server virtualization using VMware vSphere? (Choose two)

image

A.    Retains the one-to-one relationship between switch ports and functional servers
B.    Enables the live migration of a virtual server from one physical server to another without disruption to
users or loss of services
C.    The access layer of the network moves into the vSphere ESX servers, providing streamlined vSphere
management
D.    Provides management functions including the ability to run scripts and to install third-party agents for
hardware monitoring, backup, or systems management
E.    New functional servers can be deployed with minimal physical changes on the network

Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which of the following two are effective and simple means of employing route summarization within the Enterprise Campus network? (Choose two)

A.    A default route (0.0.0.0 /0) advertised dynamically into the rest of the network
B.    Route filtering to manage traffic flows in the network, avoid inappropriate transit traffic through remote
nodes, and provide a defense against inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates
C.    Use manual split horizon
D.    Use a structured hierarchical topology to control the propagation of EIGRP queries
E.    Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) stub areas

Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
From a design perspective which two of the following OSPF statements are most relevant? (Choose two)

A.    OSPF stub areas can be thought of as a simple form of summarization
B.    OSPF cannot filter intra-area routes
C.    An ABR can only exist in two areas – the backbone and one adjacent area
D.    Performance issues in the Backbone area can be offset by allowing some traffic to transit a non-backbone area
E.    The size of an area (the LSDB) will be constrained by the size of the IP MTU

Answer: AB

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Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions: 300-208 Exam
300-208 Questions & Answers
Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Q & A: 93 Q&As

QUESTION 1
How frequently does the Profiled Endpoints dashlet refresh data?
A. every 30 seconds
B. every 60 seconds
C. every 2 minutes
D. every 5 minutes
Answer: B

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Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions: 300-206 Exam
300-206 Questions & Answers
Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Q & A: 95 Q&As

QUESTION 1
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following
parameters:
– The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on
network devices.
– The user needs read-write access to policies.
– The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Answer: B

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Advanced Borderless Network Architecture Field Engineer Exam : 700-302 Exam
700-302 Questions & Answers
Exam Code: 700-302
Exam Name: Advanced Borderless Network Architecture Field Engineer Exam
Q & A: 65 Q&As

QUESTION 1
How do network administrators identify problem areas and locate them in the context of access
point floor, building, and campus locations?
A. Cisco EnergyWise
B. Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator Sustainability Dashboard
C. Cisco IronPort Web Security Appliance
D. Air Quality Index charts
Answer: D

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CCIE Collaboration Written: 400-051 Exam
400-051 Questions & Answers
Exam Code: 400-051
Exam Name: CCIE Collaboration Written
Q & A: 162 Q&As

QUESTION 1
Which two statements describe security services that are provided by the Phone Proxy function on a Cisco ASA appliance? (Choose two.)
A. it is supported only on phones that use SCCP.
B. It is supported on an adaptive security appliance that runs in transparent mode.
C. It provides interworking to ensure that the external IP phone traffic is encrypted, as long as the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster runs in secure mode.
D. It provides a proxy of phone signaling, with optional use of NAT, to hide the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address from the public Internet.
E. it proxies phone media so that internal phones are not directly exposed to the Internet.
F. it supports IP phones that send phone proxy traffic through a VPN tunnel.
Answer: DE

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640-822 Questions & Answers

Exam Code: 640-822

Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1)

Q & A: 353 Q&As 

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What is needed to allow host A to ping host B?
A. a straight-through cable connecting the switches
B. a crossover cable connecting the switches
C. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
D. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with straight-through cables
E. a backbone switch connecting the switches with either fiber optic or straight-through cables
Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Hotspot question. Click on the correct location or locations in the exhibit.
Answer: 172.16.236.4
All 5 questions.
PS: You can see the Comprehensive Question Description & Topology and Answer
& Explanation From Full Version.
QUESTION 3
Host A needs to communicate with the email server shown in the graphic. What address will be
placed in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?A. the MAC address of Host A
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the MAC address of E0 of the router
D. the MAC address of E1 of the router
E. the MAC address of Switch 2
F. the MAC address of the email server
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP settings have recently been changed on the DHCP server and the
client is no longer able to reach network resources. What should be done to correct this situation?
A. Verify that the DNS server address is correct in the DHCP pool.
B. Ping the default gateway to populate the ARP cache.
C. Use the tracert command on the DHCP client to first determine where the problem is located.
D. Clear all DHCP leases on the router to prevent address conflicts.
E. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.
Answer: E

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