Category Archives: Cisco

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QUESTION 1
Which three vendors have a hypervisor management solution that is supported by the ACI solution? (Choose three.)

A.    VMware
B.    Dell
C.    IBM
D.    Red Hat
E.    HP
F.    Microsoft

Answer: AEF

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Braindump2go Helps Get Cisco 700-602 Certification Easily By Latest 700-602 Exam Dumps(1-10)

QUESTION 1
Which protection mechanism is used by the Cisco UCS Invicta appliance to protect data writes if a power outage occurs?

A.    The UPS option is available to prevent loss of power to the device.
B.    The LSI RAID card protects data in the event of power loss.
C.    The QLogic HBA card protects data in the event of power loss.
D.    The NVRAM card protects data in the event of power loss.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The NVRAM card is the actual ring buffer which protects data to be written in the case of power outages.

QUESTION 2
Which three statements about solid state drives are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Solid state drives typically exceed the capacity of hard disk drives.
B.    Solid state drives typically deliver about 1,000 times less latency than hard disk drives.
C.    Solid state drives typically deliver 5-10 times less latency than hard disk drives.
D.    Cisco best practices dictate that random and sequential workloads should not be mixed on the same solid state drive because poor performance results.
E.    Solid state drives typically deliver about 100 times the IOPS performance of hard disk drives.
F.    Solid state drives do not suffer from mechanical seek time latency.

Answer: ABF
Explanation:
SDDs have superior performance to HDD, andoutperformthen by big differences. The lack of mechanical latency incurred in HDDs allows SDD provide improved performance.

QUESTION 3
Which aspect of Cisco UCS Director offers task automation for Cisco UCS Invicta configuration?

A.    Customized workflows using the API
B.    Customized workflows using Python scripts
C.    Customized workflows using Pearl scripts
D.    Customized workflows using macros
E.    Customized workflows using JSON scripts

Answer: D
Explanation:
UCS Director provides Macros allowing you to customize workflows.

QUESTION 4
Which statement about the scaling system router is true?

A.    SSR has no management or host facing interfaces, no ring buffer, and no LSI RAID card.
B.    SSR has no management interface but does have host facing interfaces, no ring buffer, and no LSI RAID card.
C.    SSR has management and host facing interfaces, a ring buffer, and no LSI RAID card.
D.    SSR has management and host facing interfaces, ring buffer, and LSI RAID card.
E.    SSR has management and host facing interfaces, no ring buffer, and no LSI RAID card.

Answer: E
Explanation:
SSR deals with management and networking functions of the Scaling system; the other options referred to above are storage-specific, thus carried by the Scaling Node.

QUESTION 5
Which four options are four key messages for Cisco UCS Invicta solutions? (Choose four.)

A.    Cisco UCS Invicta eliminates the need for Fibre Channel connectivity.
B.    Cisco UCS Invicta replaces all other PCIe-based flash storage.
C.    Performance and deduplication storage nodes can be deployed in the same scaling system.
D.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides symmetrical write performance (writes perform about as fast as reads).
E.    Cisco UCS Invicta scaling system provides a unique architectural advantage over other all flash arrays.
F.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides scale-up performance up to 30 storage nodes.
G.    PCIe flash form factor provides Cisco UCS Invicta with the lowest latency possible.
H.    Cisco UCS Invicta concurrently provides scale-up and scale-out architectures.

Answer: CDEH
Explanation:
The architecture of Cisc Invicta allows both scale up and scale out options, providin flexibility to customize the type of storage nodes based on the needs and allowing need equal- performance for both read and write operations.

QUESTION 6
Which three options are characteristics of the Cisco UCS Invicta asynchronous replication feature? (Choose three.)

A.    A LUN can be asynchronously replicated to a NFS share.
B.    It provides for file-level replication based on a snapshot of a point in time.
C.    It is an optional licensed feature on Cisco UCS Invicta systems.
D.    It is available only on Cisco UCS Invicta scaling systems.
E.    It provides for block-level replication based on a snapshot of a point in time.
F.    It can be enabled at any time without disruption.

Answer: CEF
Explanation:
Asynchrounous replication happens either from LUN to LUN or NFS to NFS;it’s an optional feature that canbe loaded at any time without disruption.

QUESTION 7
Which option is the name of a Linux command-line I/O tool that is meant to be used for benchmark and stress/hardware verification?

A.    Bash
B.    fio
C.    X11
D.    lometer
E.    Remedy
F.    GNOME

Answer: B
Explanation:
FIO is this command line tool native to Windows and actually comes pre-packaged with Fedora 8.

QUESTION 8
Which two options are performance differences between Cisco UCS Invicta and PCIe flash memory? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco UCS Invicta consumes much less power than PCIe flash memory.
B.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides much better benefit at scale for system boot storms.
C.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides much better reduction in system boot time.
D.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides significantly better I/O latency.
E.    Cisco UCS Invicta provides significantly more I/O acceleration.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Those are the performance differences, in the other subjects stated above, both technologies are very similar.

QUESTION 9
Which interface types are supported in the PCIe slots of the scaling system router?

A.    No user configurable interface cards are supported.
B.    10 GE and 16 GB Fibre Channel.
C.    10 GE and 8 GB Fibre Channel.
D.    1 GE and 8 GB Fibre Channel.
E.    1 GE and 16 GB Fibre Channel.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which interface types are supported in the PCIe slots of the scaling system node?

A.    User-configurable interface cards are not supported.
B.    11 GE and 16 GB Fibre Channel.
C.    11 GE and 8 GB Fibre Channel.
D.    2 GE and 8 GB Fibre Channel.
E.    2 GE and 16 GB Fibre Channel.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Remember it’s the SSR which needs connectivity to the switching backplane.

 

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QUESTION 1
What is important to note about the Cisco UCS Invicta method of handling data reduction?

A.    De-dup is not enabled with Invicta as a benefit.
B.    It is enabled only for the first 4K blocks.
C.    It can be enabled on a PER NODE basis.
D.    It is enabled for the entire system or frame.

Answer: C

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Braindump2go Releases New Cisco 700-280 Exam Dumps Version!(1-8)

QUESTION 1
Membership in which sender group will cause the C-Series-to skip checking the SMTP envelope’s "rcpt to" field against the RAT?

A.    SUSPECTLIST
B.    WHITELIST
C.    RELAYLIST
D.    BLACKLIST
E.    UNKNOWNLIST

Answer: C

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Braindump2go Free Exam Cisco 700-260 Simulator(1-7)

QUESTION 1
Utilizing the Cisco software lifecycle generates which two benefits for partners? (Choose two.)

A.    Adaptable deployment
B.    Software portability
C.    Improved sales performance
D.    Cisco incentives
E.    Increased efficiencies
F.    Sales promotions
G.    Customer support

Answer: CE

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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 400-101 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation? (Choose two.)

A.    The use of tail drop
B.    The use of WRED
C.    Mixing TCP and UDP traffic in the same traffic class
D.    The use of TCP congestion control

Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which type of port would have root guard enabled on it?

A.    A root port
B.    An alternate port
C.    A blocked port
D.    A designated port

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the feasibility condition in EIGRP is true?

A.    The prefix is reachable via an EIGRP peer that is in the routing domain of the router.
B.    The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix to the router has multiple paths to the destination.
C.    The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix to the router is closer to the destination than the router.
D.    The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix cannot be used as a next hop to reach the destination.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about the function of the stub feature in EIGRP are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It stops the stub router from sending queries to peers.
B.    It stops the hub router from sending queries to the stub router.
C.    It stops the stub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes to the hub routers .
D.    It stops the hub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes to the stub routers .

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
In which type of EIGRP configuration is EIGRP IPv6 VRF-Lite available?

A.    stub
B.    named mode
C.    classic mode
D.    passive

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Two routers are trying to establish an OSPFv3 adjacency over an Ethernet link, but the adjacency is not forming. Which two options are possible reasons that prevent OSPFv3 to form between these two routers? (Choose two.)

A.    mismatch of subnet masks
B.    mismatch of network types
C.    mismatch of authentication types
D.    mismatch of instance IDs
E.    mismatch of area types

Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Like OSPFv2, OSPFv3 supports virtual links.Which two statements are true about the IPv6 address of a virtual neighbor? (Choose two.)

A.    It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining the hello packets received from the
virtual neighbor.
B.    It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining link LSA received by the virtual neighbor.
C.    It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the router LSAs received by the
virtual neighbor.
D.    Only prefixes with the LA-bit not set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.
E.    It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the intra-area-prefix-LSAs received
by the virtual neighbor.
F.    Only prefixes with the LA-bit set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.

Answer: EF

QUESTION 8
Which field is specific to the OPSFv3 packet header, as opposed to the OSPFv2 packet header?

A.    checksum
B.    router ID
C.    AuType
D.    instance ID

Answer: D
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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 010-151 Demo Free Download!

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Version: DEMO
 
QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?

A.    MDS 9513
B.    MDS 9509
C.    MDS 9506
D.    MDS 9250i

Answer: A

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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 350-030 Dump Free Download(211-220)!

QUESTION 211
You are deploying a new Cisco Unified Communications solution that utilizes a centralized call processing model. Which method of CAC is recommended for this type of solution?

A.    RSVP-based
B.    gatekeeper-based
C.    CUBE-based
D.    locations-based

Answer: D

QUESTION 212
Which Cisco IOS CLI command can be used to identify the high jitter level of an RTP stream on a Cisco IOS voice gateway?

A.    show call active voice brief
B.    show voip rtp connections
C.    show voice dsp detailed
D.    show voice call summary
E.    show policy-map interface

Answer: A

QUESTION 213
Which two analog voice interfaces support ground-start? (Choose two.)

A.    FXS
B.    E&MTypel
C.    E&MTypell
D.    E&MTypelV
E.    FXO

Answer: AE

QUESTION 214
When using DNS, what does the TC bit indicate?

A.    The total response size was greater than 512 bytes, and the data that does not fit was required
B.    The DNS response was less than 512 bytes, and the data required padding.
C.    The packet was greater than 1024 bytes, and the data was possibly damaged.
D.    The pointer to the RRset that will provide the correct data due to possible damage

Answer: A

QUESTION 215
Which Cisco Unified Presence service parameter must be modified from the default value in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional?

A.    server name
B.    server IP address
C.    DNS domain
D.    SIP proxy domain
E.    enable presence

Answer: D
QUESTION 216
A CallManager Group can provide which two features to your call processing system? (Choose 2)

A.    Support for SRST in remote offices
B.    Enables you to distribute the control of devices across multiple Cisco CallManagers
C.    Enables you to distribute voice mail support across multiple Unity servers
D.    Support for redundancy by enabling you to designate a primary and backup Cisco CallManagers
for each group
E.    Support for control of IPMA across primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group

Answer: BD

QUESTION 217
Which two features do not override the DND setting on an SCCP-controlled IP phone on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)

A.    park reversion for remotely parked calls
B.    MLPP
C.    callback–terminating side
D.    hold reversion
E.    intercom
F.    park reversion for locally parked calls

Answer: AC

QUESTION 218
Which 2 are NOT functions performed by Cisco Media Streaming App Service?

A.    Provides SCCP stack for 4 software devices: ANN, CFB, MOH, and MTP
B.    Supports DB change notification processing
C.    Converts new MOH source files to separate WAV files for MOH codecs
D.    Provides SDI trace, event logs, and Perfmon counters
E.    Adjusts volume levels of MOH source files
F.    Provides audio data from WAV files: ANN, MOH

Answer: CE

QUESTION 219
A company has a headquarters with a centralized CallManager and 5 remote offices. All the remote offices have extensions in the range of 1000-1150. To allow inter-office calls each office has been assigned a 3 digit site code. To call between sites, users will dial an access code followed by the 3 digit site code and the extension. Which of the following describes how these inter-office access codes should be configured?

A.    A translation pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones.
The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned a Calling Search Space
that includes only the phones located in the office.
B.    A translation pattern is created for each office and is placed in a partition available to the phones at
that office. The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned to Calling
Search Space that includes all local phones.
C.    A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The route
pattern strips the access code and the site code and routes the call to the remote office’s gateway.
D.    A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to phones at that office.
The route pattern strips the access code and site code and routes the call to the remote office’s gateway.

Answer: B

QUESTION 220
Which type of media resources would be required for a single site call processing model?

A.    MTP
B.    Locations
C.    Regions
D.    Transcoders

Answer: A

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QUESTION 201
Which two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system components do not support integration redundancy? (Choose two.)

A.    CTI ports
B.    AXL service
C.    Cisco Unified CM Telephony trigger
D.    CSQ
E.    dialog groups
F.    HTTP trigger

Answer: DF

QUESTION 202
Which of these best describes the “Incoming ACL” configuration on Cisco Unified Presence?

A.    permits incoming packets to Cisco Unified Presence
B.    bypasses digest authentication
C.    allows instant messages
D.    allows incoming certificates to Cisco Unified Presence
E.    filters incoming presence status requests

Answer: B

QUESTION 203
Calculate the percentage of bandwidth that is saved for one G.729 call crossing a Frame Relay link when ip rtp header-compression is enabled. The Frame Relay overhead is 4 bytes. The G.729 codec bit rate is 8 kb/s. Assume UDP checksum is enabled.

A.    approximately 55 percent
B.    approximately 85 percent
C.    approximately 20 percent
D.    approximately 65 percent
E.    approximately 60 percent

Answer: D

QUESTION 204
Which E1 time slots are used to carry encoded voice only?

A.    timeslots to 31
B.    timeslots to 15, and 17 to 31
C.    time slots 1 to 32
D.    time slots 1 to 15, and 17 to 31
E.    timeslots to 15, and 17 to 32

Answer: D

QUESTION 205
These three-class policies use MQC tools whenever possible. Which of the policies will effectively provision for IP telephony traffic being carried over a 768 kb/s Frame Relay PVC using Cisco recommended best-practice parameters?

A.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
compress header ip rtp
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960
B.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 768000 7680 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
C.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
compress header ip rtp
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
fragment frfl2 960
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci
102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
D.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 70
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
ip rtp header-compression
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960
E.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
compress header ip rtp
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 640

Answer: E

QUESTION 206
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents zero or more occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard?

A.    !
B.    +
C.    *
D.    .
E.    ?

Answer: E

QUESTION 207
How is fax pass-through traffic treated over IP WAN connections that use the G.729 codec?

A.    The fax traffic is demodulated and sent with VAD and echo chancellor disabled.
B.    When the TGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that has been contacted, the TGW
changes to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.
C.    When the OGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that is making the call, the OGW is
informed by the contacted device of the Cisco NSF features and switches to the G.711 codec
with VAD disabled.
D.    The contacting fax machine sends a TCF message to the contacted fax machine and waits for
a CFR message. When the CFR message is received, the fax tones sent by the contacting fax
machine cause the OGW to send an NSF message to the TGW, instructing it to switch to the
G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.

Answer: B

QUESTION 208
According to the Cisco QoS SRND guide, cRTP is recommended on which link speed?

A.    lower than or equal to 10 Mb/s
B.    lower than or equal to 384 kb/s
C.    lower than or equal to 1.544 Mb/s
D.    lower than or equal to 768 kb/s
E.    lower than or equal to 512 kb/s

Answer: D

QUESTION 209
An IP phone user just answered an incoming call by lifting the handset. Assuming that the IP phone uses SCCP, which SCCP message will Cisco Unified Communications Manager transmit to this called IP phone immediately after receiving notification about the off-hook event?

A.    Station Media Port List message
B.    Station Set Ringer message
C.    Station Stop Tone message
D.    Station Start Media Transmission message
E.    Station Open Receive Channel message

Answer: B

QUESTION 210
Which three statements about a modem pass-through call are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    Clear-channel codec is used to transport modem tones.
B.    G.711 mu-law codec is used to transport modem tones.
C.    VAD is disabled.
D.    VAD is enabled.
E.    NLP is disabled.
F.     NLP is enabled.

Answer: BCE

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