Category Archives: Cisco

Braindump2go Releases New Cisco 700-280 Exam Dumps Version!(1-8)

QUESTION 1
Membership in which sender group will cause the C-Series-to skip checking the SMTP envelope’s "rcpt to" field against the RAT?

A.    SUSPECTLIST
B.    WHITELIST
C.    RELAYLIST
D.    BLACKLIST
E.    UNKNOWNLIST

Answer: C

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Braindump2go Free Exam Cisco 700-260 Simulator(1-7)

QUESTION 1
Utilizing the Cisco software lifecycle generates which two benefits for partners? (Choose two.)

A.    Adaptable deployment
B.    Software portability
C.    Improved sales performance
D.    Cisco incentives
E.    Increased efficiencies
F.    Sales promotions
G.    Customer support

Answer: CE

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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 400-101 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation? (Choose two.)

A.    The use of tail drop
B.    The use of WRED
C.    Mixing TCP and UDP traffic in the same traffic class
D.    The use of TCP congestion control

Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which type of port would have root guard enabled on it?

A.    A root port
B.    An alternate port
C.    A blocked port
D.    A designated port

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the feasibility condition in EIGRP is true?

A.    The prefix is reachable via an EIGRP peer that is in the routing domain of the router.
B.    The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix to the router has multiple paths to the destination.
C.    The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix to the router is closer to the destination than the router.
D.    The EIGRP peer that advertises the prefix cannot be used as a next hop to reach the destination.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about the function of the stub feature in EIGRP are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It stops the stub router from sending queries to peers.
B.    It stops the hub router from sending queries to the stub router.
C.    It stops the stub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes to the hub routers .
D.    It stops the hub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes to the stub routers .

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
In which type of EIGRP configuration is EIGRP IPv6 VRF-Lite available?

A.    stub
B.    named mode
C.    classic mode
D.    passive

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Two routers are trying to establish an OSPFv3 adjacency over an Ethernet link, but the adjacency is not forming. Which two options are possible reasons that prevent OSPFv3 to form between these two routers? (Choose two.)

A.    mismatch of subnet masks
B.    mismatch of network types
C.    mismatch of authentication types
D.    mismatch of instance IDs
E.    mismatch of area types

Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Like OSPFv2, OSPFv3 supports virtual links.Which two statements are true about the IPv6 address of a virtual neighbor? (Choose two.)

A.    It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining the hello packets received from the
virtual neighbor.
B.    It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining link LSA received by the virtual neighbor.
C.    It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the router LSAs received by the
virtual neighbor.
D.    Only prefixes with the LA-bit not set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.
E.    It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the intra-area-prefix-LSAs received
by the virtual neighbor.
F.    Only prefixes with the LA-bit set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.

Answer: EF

QUESTION 8
Which field is specific to the OPSFv3 packet header, as opposed to the OSPFv2 packet header?

A.    checksum
B.    router ID
C.    AuType
D.    instance ID

Answer: D
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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 010-151 Demo Free Download!

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Version: DEMO
 
QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?

A.    MDS 9513
B.    MDS 9509
C.    MDS 9506
D.    MDS 9250i

Answer: A

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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 350-030 Dump Free Download(211-220)!

QUESTION 211
You are deploying a new Cisco Unified Communications solution that utilizes a centralized call processing model. Which method of CAC is recommended for this type of solution?

A.    RSVP-based
B.    gatekeeper-based
C.    CUBE-based
D.    locations-based

Answer: D

QUESTION 212
Which Cisco IOS CLI command can be used to identify the high jitter level of an RTP stream on a Cisco IOS voice gateway?

A.    show call active voice brief
B.    show voip rtp connections
C.    show voice dsp detailed
D.    show voice call summary
E.    show policy-map interface

Answer: A

QUESTION 213
Which two analog voice interfaces support ground-start? (Choose two.)

A.    FXS
B.    E&MTypel
C.    E&MTypell
D.    E&MTypelV
E.    FXO

Answer: AE

QUESTION 214
When using DNS, what does the TC bit indicate?

A.    The total response size was greater than 512 bytes, and the data that does not fit was required
B.    The DNS response was less than 512 bytes, and the data required padding.
C.    The packet was greater than 1024 bytes, and the data was possibly damaged.
D.    The pointer to the RRset that will provide the correct data due to possible damage

Answer: A

QUESTION 215
Which Cisco Unified Presence service parameter must be modified from the default value in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional?

A.    server name
B.    server IP address
C.    DNS domain
D.    SIP proxy domain
E.    enable presence

Answer: D
QUESTION 216
A CallManager Group can provide which two features to your call processing system? (Choose 2)

A.    Support for SRST in remote offices
B.    Enables you to distribute the control of devices across multiple Cisco CallManagers
C.    Enables you to distribute voice mail support across multiple Unity servers
D.    Support for redundancy by enabling you to designate a primary and backup Cisco CallManagers
for each group
E.    Support for control of IPMA across primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group

Answer: BD

QUESTION 217
Which two features do not override the DND setting on an SCCP-controlled IP phone on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)

A.    park reversion for remotely parked calls
B.    MLPP
C.    callback–terminating side
D.    hold reversion
E.    intercom
F.    park reversion for locally parked calls

Answer: AC

QUESTION 218
Which 2 are NOT functions performed by Cisco Media Streaming App Service?

A.    Provides SCCP stack for 4 software devices: ANN, CFB, MOH, and MTP
B.    Supports DB change notification processing
C.    Converts new MOH source files to separate WAV files for MOH codecs
D.    Provides SDI trace, event logs, and Perfmon counters
E.    Adjusts volume levels of MOH source files
F.    Provides audio data from WAV files: ANN, MOH

Answer: CE

QUESTION 219
A company has a headquarters with a centralized CallManager and 5 remote offices. All the remote offices have extensions in the range of 1000-1150. To allow inter-office calls each office has been assigned a 3 digit site code. To call between sites, users will dial an access code followed by the 3 digit site code and the extension. Which of the following describes how these inter-office access codes should be configured?

A.    A translation pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones.
The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned a Calling Search Space
that includes only the phones located in the office.
B.    A translation pattern is created for each office and is placed in a partition available to the phones at
that office. The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned to Calling
Search Space that includes all local phones.
C.    A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The route
pattern strips the access code and the site code and routes the call to the remote office’s gateway.
D.    A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to phones at that office.
The route pattern strips the access code and site code and routes the call to the remote office’s gateway.

Answer: B

QUESTION 220
Which type of media resources would be required for a single site call processing model?

A.    MTP
B.    Locations
C.    Regions
D.    Transcoders

Answer: A

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QUESTION 201
Which two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system components do not support integration redundancy? (Choose two.)

A.    CTI ports
B.    AXL service
C.    Cisco Unified CM Telephony trigger
D.    CSQ
E.    dialog groups
F.    HTTP trigger

Answer: DF

QUESTION 202
Which of these best describes the “Incoming ACL” configuration on Cisco Unified Presence?

A.    permits incoming packets to Cisco Unified Presence
B.    bypasses digest authentication
C.    allows instant messages
D.    allows incoming certificates to Cisco Unified Presence
E.    filters incoming presence status requests

Answer: B

QUESTION 203
Calculate the percentage of bandwidth that is saved for one G.729 call crossing a Frame Relay link when ip rtp header-compression is enabled. The Frame Relay overhead is 4 bytes. The G.729 codec bit rate is 8 kb/s. Assume UDP checksum is enabled.

A.    approximately 55 percent
B.    approximately 85 percent
C.    approximately 20 percent
D.    approximately 65 percent
E.    approximately 60 percent

Answer: D

QUESTION 204
Which E1 time slots are used to carry encoded voice only?

A.    timeslots to 31
B.    timeslots to 15, and 17 to 31
C.    time slots 1 to 32
D.    time slots 1 to 15, and 17 to 31
E.    timeslots to 15, and 17 to 32

Answer: D

QUESTION 205
These three-class policies use MQC tools whenever possible. Which of the policies will effectively provision for IP telephony traffic being carried over a 768 kb/s Frame Relay PVC using Cisco recommended best-practice parameters?

A.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
compress header ip rtp
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960
B.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 768000 7680 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
C.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
compress header ip rtp
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
fragment frfl2 960
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci
102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
D.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 70
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
ip rtp header-compression
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960
E.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
compress header ip rtp
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 640

Answer: E

QUESTION 206
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents zero or more occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard?

A.    !
B.    +
C.    *
D.    .
E.    ?

Answer: E

QUESTION 207
How is fax pass-through traffic treated over IP WAN connections that use the G.729 codec?

A.    The fax traffic is demodulated and sent with VAD and echo chancellor disabled.
B.    When the TGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that has been contacted, the TGW
changes to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.
C.    When the OGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that is making the call, the OGW is
informed by the contacted device of the Cisco NSF features and switches to the G.711 codec
with VAD disabled.
D.    The contacting fax machine sends a TCF message to the contacted fax machine and waits for
a CFR message. When the CFR message is received, the fax tones sent by the contacting fax
machine cause the OGW to send an NSF message to the TGW, instructing it to switch to the
G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.

Answer: B

QUESTION 208
According to the Cisco QoS SRND guide, cRTP is recommended on which link speed?

A.    lower than or equal to 10 Mb/s
B.    lower than or equal to 384 kb/s
C.    lower than or equal to 1.544 Mb/s
D.    lower than or equal to 768 kb/s
E.    lower than or equal to 512 kb/s

Answer: D

QUESTION 209
An IP phone user just answered an incoming call by lifting the handset. Assuming that the IP phone uses SCCP, which SCCP message will Cisco Unified Communications Manager transmit to this called IP phone immediately after receiving notification about the off-hook event?

A.    Station Media Port List message
B.    Station Set Ringer message
C.    Station Stop Tone message
D.    Station Start Media Transmission message
E.    Station Open Receive Channel message

Answer: B

QUESTION 210
Which three statements about a modem pass-through call are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    Clear-channel codec is used to transport modem tones.
B.    G.711 mu-law codec is used to transport modem tones.
C.    VAD is disabled.
D.    VAD is enabled.
E.    NLP is disabled.
F.     NLP is enabled.

Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 191
Integrity, authentication, and encryption are some of the security features that are supported on Cisco Unified Communications Manager and IP phones. Which of these describes an integrity threat?

A.    modification of call-processing signals between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and IP phones
B.    man-in-the-middle attacks
C.    phone and server identity theft
D.    TFTP file manipulation
E.    unauthorized capturing and decoding of voice signaling packets

Answer: D

QUESTION 192
Which of the following three messages could be sent by the UAC in response to the 180 Ringing? (Choose three.)

A.    PR ACK
B.    ACK
C.    BYE
D.    CANCEL
E.    INVITE

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 193
Which signaling method cannot solve the FXO disconnect problem?

A.    power denial
B.    tone-based supervisory disconnect
C.    pulse dial
D.    ground-start signaling
E.    battery reversal

Answer: C

QUESTION 194
Which two telephony interfaces on a Cisco IOS gateway can be controlled by Cisco Unified Communications Manager using SCCP? (Choose two.)

A.    analog E&M
B.    ISDN BRI
C.    ISDN PRI
D.    analog FXS
E.    analog FXO

Answer: BD

Answer: B

QUESTION 195
CRTP belongs to which Cisco quality of service feature?

A.    classification
B.    congestion management
C.    congestion avoidance
D.    shaping and policing
E.    link efficiency mechanisms

Answer: E

QUESTION 196
You are implementing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution utilizing MGCP gateways with PRI interface cards. You are working with your security department, which has a firewall in place between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and the gateway. After the firewall is turned up, your PRI is no longer working. You suspect that the backhaul port has been blocked.
What port does Cisco Unified Communications Manager use between itself and an MGCP gateway for PRI backhaul traffic?

A.    2427
B.    2428
C.    2727
D.    2728
E.    9900

Answer: B

QUESTION 197
Which statement about the H.323 Fast Connect (also known as fast start) procedures is correct?

A.    Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by forcing all H.245 negotiations to take place earlier
during the H.225 message exchanges, setup time by allowing H.323 devices to propose and confirm
master-slave determination in H.225 message exchanges.
B.    Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by permitting calls to bypass certain H.225 steps and move
directly from H.225 setup to H.225 exchanges.
C.    Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by allowing H.323 devices to propose and confirm Open
Logical Channel in H.225 message connect.
D.    Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by allowing H.323 devices to use UDP as a transport
protocol for H.245 negotiation messages, exchanges.
E.    Fast Connect shortens the call reclaiming time that is otherwise used for TCP handshakes.

Answer: A

QUESTION 198
Which of these is not a valid switchback method for SCCP hardware conference bridges?

A.    immediate
B.    never
C.    graceful
D.    guard
E.    uptime

Answer: B

QUESTION 199
Which three statements are true about multicast IGMP snooping? (Choose three.)

A.    When a host in a multicast group sends an IGMP leave message, only that port is deleted from the
multicast group.
B.    An IP multicast stream to the IP host can be stopped only by an IGMP leave message.
C.    IGMP snooping does not examine or snoop Layer 3 information in packets that are sent between
the hosts and the router.
D.    When the switch hears the IGMP host report from a host for a particular multicast group, the switch
adds the host’s port number to the associated multicast table entry.
E.    IGMP control messages are transmitted as IGMP multicast packets so that they can be distinguished
from normal multicast data at Layer 2.
F.    A switch that is running IGMP snooping examines every multicast data packet to verify whether it
contains any pertinent IGMP “must control” information.

Answer: ADF

QUESTION 200
What are two advantages of multicast technologies? (Choose two.)

A.    Denial of service attacks in the network are prevented.
B.    They eliminate multipoint applications.
C.    They reduce traffic by delivering a separate stream of information to each corporate recipient or
home environment, which reduces bandwidth
D.    They control network traffic and reduce server and CPU load.
E.    They eliminate traffic redundancy.

Answer: DE

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QUESTION 181
Which of these is a pair of RSVP reservation types?

A.    Distinct and Shared
B.    Same and Distinct
C.    Shared and non-shared
D.    Reservation and Path

Answer: A

QUESTION 182
Company Alpha has a central office and a branch office that utilize a central call processing toplogy. Calls between the two sites are using the G.729 codec; calls within each site are using the G.711 codec.
To conference an existing call between two phones at the central site with a phone at the remote office, which two of the following are possible solutions? (Choose two.)

A.    a software conference bridge that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B.    a software conference bridge that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and a
HW transcoder
C.    a hardware conference bridge
D.    a hardware transcoder and a hardware conference bridge
E.    No extra configurations required-phones automatically negotiate using the lowest common denominator
codec (G.729)

Answer: BC

QUESTION 183
Which two statements apply to the partitions function in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)

A.    When a directory number or route pattern is placed into a certain partition, this creates a rule for who
can call that device or route list
B.    A partition is a logical grouping of directory numbers and route patterns that have similar reachability
characteristics.
C.    Calling Search Spaces are assigned to partitions.
D.    A directory number may appear in only one partition.
E.    Within the partition, each CSS has a directory number.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 184
What is the default DTMF relay for Cisco Unity Express when integrated via SIP?

A.    RTP-NTE
B.    SIP Notify
C.    SIP INFO
D.    in-band audio
E.    SIP Subscribe/Notify

Answer: B

QUESTION 185
Which event does not trigger Cisco Unity Connection to turn off MWI for a user IP phone?

A.    when all new messages are listened to
B.    when a user deletes a new message without listening to it
C.    when a user listens to only part of a message and hangs up
D.    when a user deletes a message after listening to only part of it
E.    none of the above

Answer: E

QUESTION 186
Which digital telephony signaling protocol does not support ANI information?

A.    T1 PRI
B.    T1 CAS E&M Feature Group B
C.    E1 R2
D.    T1 BRI
E.    T1 CAS E&M Feature Group D

Answer: B

QUESTION 187
A customer needs to create a plan for deploying QoS across the company network in anticipation of adding a VoIP solution and to clean up the existing network. Employees currently use a corporate intranet to report expenses and access ERP and manufacturing applications, the Intemet for customer support and customer orders, and a recently installed IP-based video- conferencing system, which has been only marginally successful because of poor quality.
Which four CoS-DSCP values should be applied to the customer network so that voice, video, and data all function properly? (Choose four.)

A.    ERP and manufacturing protocols AF31
B.    video AF41, video signaling CS3
C.    Voice bearer AF43, voice signaling AF26
D.    Internet BE
E.    ERP and manufacturing protocols AF43
F.    voice bearer EF, voice signaling CS3

Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 188
Which statement about the Media Resource Group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct?

A.    Different types of media resources cannot be grouped into the same Media Resource Group.
B.    A Media Resource Group contains a prioritized list of media resources.
C.    The default Media Resource Group is defined in the service parameters of Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
D.    Once a media resource is associated with a Media Resource Group, it is no longer eligible to be
associated with another Media Resource Group.
E.    The Media Resource Group configuration page allows administrators to choose whether to use
multicast for MOH audio.

Answer: E

QUESTION 189
Which three are valid T1 CAS types? (Choose three.)

A.    E&M signaling
B.    semicompelled signaling
C.    loop-start signaling
D.    line signaling
E.    Group 1 signaling
F.    ground-start signaling

Answer: ACF

QUESTION 190
Which two of these are possible reasons why a JTAPI subsystem might have the status PARTIAL_SERVICE? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco Unified Contact Center is not able to resolve the host name of Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
B.    A referenced CTI Route Point is not associated with the JTAPI user.
C.    The JTAPI user password is not correct.
D.    There is an error in one of the scripts being loaded.
E.    The CTI Manager service is not running on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

Answer: BD

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QUESTION 171
How does the function of IPMA in proxy-line mode differ from IPMA in shared-line mode?

A.    In proxy-line mode, managers and assistants have separate directory numbers or lines on their
phones, but calls to managers are usually diverted to assistants’ lines.
B.    In shared-line mode, managers and assistants have separate directory numbers and calls are
usually diverted to assistants’ lines.
C.    In proxy-line mode, managers and assistants have separate directory numbers, but assistants
can handle calls without disturbing managers
D.    In shared-line mode, managers and assistants have separate directory numbers or lines on their
phones, but calls to managers are usually diverted to assistants’ lines.

Answer: A

QUESTION 172
Which two descriptions apply to the Calling Search Space function in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)

A.    It defines which numbers are available for a device to call.
B.    It provides a group of dial patterns to look through when making a call.
C.    Within a partition, each CSS has a directory number.
D.    It defines route patterns and directory numbers from which calls can be received.
E.    It defines the search for directory numbers in assigned partitions according to dial patterns.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 173
Users are complaining that the music on hold marketing files for this month are not being played when users are placed on hold. Which three of these do you need to verify? (Choose three.)

A.    the IP voice media streaming application has been stopped and restarted
B.    a new directory has been created for the new media files
C.    users have selected the correct MoH files for customer calls
D.    the new music files are in the correct format to be used with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E.    the location of the new music files is what the MoH server expects

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 174
Refer to the exhibit. The JTAPI Subsystem is showing OUT_OF_SERVICE. From the trace, what is the cause of this issue?

clip_image001

A.    Cisco Unified Contact Center is not able to resolve the host name of Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
B.    A referenced CTI Route Point is not associated with the JTAPI user.
C.    The JTAPI user password is not correct.
D.    There is an error in one of the scripts being loaded.
E.    The CTI Manager service is not running on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

Answer: A

QUESTION 175
An IP phone configured in voice VLAN 128 is registered to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. It has a speech connection established with another IP phone that is connected to another Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. The codec configured on both of the phones is G.711 with a 20 ms sample. A PC is connected to the back of an IP phone which is running the sniffer program and collecting packets coming out of the IP phone.
What will be the data frame size coming out of the phone, as seen by the sniffer?

A.    64 bytes
B.    128btyes
C.    160 bytes
D.    200 bytes
E.    204 bytes
F.    218 byte

Answer: F

QUESTION 176
Which type of SIP responses would indicate that a server encountered an error in attempting to complete a SIP request?

A.    1 xx
B.    3xx
C.    4xx
D.    5xx
E.    6xx

Answer: D

QUESTION 177
Which two of the following functions best match and describe a Cisco IOS Software MTP? (Choose two.)

A.    It transcodes a-law to mu-law and vice versa for G.711 codecs.
B.    It transcodes between G.729 and G.711 codecs.
C.    It supports the G.711 (a-law, mu-law) and G.729 (G.729a, G.729b, G.729ab) codecs, but only one
codec is supported at any one time
D.    Cisco IOS Software MTPs are identical to the transcoder-type Cisco IOS Media Termination Point.
E.    MTPs are used to extend supplementary services to H323 devices that support Empty Capability Set.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 178
What is the required bandwidth for three G.711 VoIP calls on an Ethernet link? (Note that the packets-per-second count should be set to 33 p/s.

A.    192 kb/s
B.    240 kb/s
C.    238.5 kb/s
D.    223.8 kb/s

Answer: C

QUESTION 179
Which three attributes correctly describe aspects of MGCP? (Choose three.)

A.    peer-to-peer
B.    Master/Slave
C.    call preservation on gateway failover from one Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to another
D.    communication with Cisco Unified Communications Manager handled via a proxy server
E.    centralized dial plan management
F.    intelligent endpoints

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 180
Approximately what percentage of overall bandwidth is saved (at Layer 2) by cRTP for a G.729 VoIP call packetized at 50 p/s and running over a MLP link?

A.    60 percent
B.    50 percent
C.    40 percent
D.    30 percent
E.    20 percent

Answer: B

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QUESTION 161
Which three options are valid SCCP call states sent to an IP phone?

A.    Ring Off
B.    On Hook
C.    Call Transmit
D.    Connected
E.    Disconnected
F.    In Use Remotely

Answer: BDF

QUESTION 162
In a VoIP deployment, which two protocols satisfy the following three requirements? (Choose two.)
Requirement 1: the protocol has a mechanism for a centralized dial-plan
Requirement 2: the endpoints are considered to be unintelligent
Requirement 3: the protocol is text-based

A.    SIP
B.    H.323
C.    MGCP
D.    SCCP

Answer: CD

QUESTION 163
Which three of these are mandatory sub-commands of the call-manager-fallback command and will help an IP phone register to an IOS router in SRST mode? (Choose three.)

A.    access-code
B.    dialplan-pattern
C.    ip source-address
D.    keepalive
E.    max-dn
F.    max-ephones

Answer: CEF

QUESTION 164
Which two of the following are functions of DHCP snooping? (Choose two.)

A.    relies on already discovered trusted and untmsted ports
B.    dynamic ARP inspection
C.    defines trusted and untrusted ports
D.    uses existing binding tables
E.    builds a binding table
F.    automatically builds ACLs

Answer: CE

QUESTION 165
Cadorna Inc. is planning a deployment of Cisco IP telephony using the centralized call processing model. The company has a headquarters location with 25 branches. They are interconnected with an MPLS network that provides full-mesh connectivity between all sites.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    From an IP routing perspective on the enterprise side of the network, each site is two hops away
from all other sites.
B.    From the Call Admission Control perspective of Cisco Unified Communications Manager,
a service-provider IP WAN service that is based on MPLS is, in reality, equivalent to a hub-and- spoke
topology without a hub site.
C.    This design requires that Call Admission Control be performed on the central site link independently
of the branch links.
D.    The Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers need to be aware of the underlying MPLS network
by setting the appropriate enterprise parameters.
E.    This design using MPLS will not allow Call Admission Control to be performed.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 166
Which three statements are true about Cisco Discovery Protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    It is an excellent tool for displaying the interface status on switches.
B.    It works on top of the network layer and data link level.
C.    It uses a multicast packet with a destination MAC address of 01-00-CC-CC-CC.
D.    The platform TLV (TLV type 0x0006) contains an ASCII character string that describes the hardware
platform of the device
E.    You can use the CDP timer feature to change update times. The default is 60 seconds.
F.    It uses a broadcast packet with a destination MAC address of 01-00-CC-CC-CC.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 167
What is the required bandwidth for three G.729 VoIP calls on a WAN Frame Relay link with cRTP turned off? (Note: The payload size is 30 bytes.

A.    72 kb/s
B.    66 kb/s
C.    55.8 kb/s
D.    60.9 kb/s

Answer: D

QUESTION 168
If enabled, the RSVP for LLQ feature will assign which two types of flows to the priority queue? (Choose two.)

A.    all RSVP bandwidth requests
B.    voice flows generated from Cisco IOS applications
C.    voice flows generated from third-party applications, such as Microsoft NetMeeting
D.    all traffic marked DSCP EF
E.    all traffic marked CoS 5

Answer: BC

QUESTION 169
Which three statements apply to the route filter function in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose three.)

A.    A route filter can be used to restrict dialing certain numbers.
B.    A route filter can be used to identify a subset of a wildcard pattern.
C.    A route filter cannot effectively block the dialing of 900 area codes.
D.    The “.” wildcard denotes a portion of a route pattern that is not stripped when the pattern matches.
E.    The wildcard “@” denotes any number that you can dial in the North American numbering system.
F.    A route filter cannot be used in conjunction with partitions and Calling Search Spaces to set up complex
dialing rules

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 170
An IP phone is connected to a Cisco Inline Power switch port. The switch is running Native IOS image. The switch port is acting as a trunk and is running both voice and data VLAN configuration on it. You would like the IP phone connected to the switch port in voice VLAN to assign a Layer 2 priority to all packets coming from the PC to default 0. Which IOS CLI in the interface port configuration for the inline power switch will help you achieve this objective?

A.    switchport access priority extend cos 0
B.    switchport priority extend cos 0
C.    switchport trunk priority cos 0
D.    switchport mode access priority extend cos 0
E.    mis qos priority extend cos 0
F.    switchport access extend cos 0

Answer: B

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