Latest EMC E20-322 Dumps

Technology Architect Solutions Design: E20-322 Exam

  • E20-322 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-322
  • Exam Name: Technology Architect Solutions Design
  • Q & A: 122 Q&As

1: A customer is deploying a new Microsoft Exchange environment and has requested assistance with the associated disk design. They are deploying Exchange for 850 users with an average of 3 I/Os per user. They expect a 60% read and 40% write distribution. The customer would like to know the number of disks required for both RAID 5 and RAID 1/0 DMX configurations with 15k rpm drives. How many disks are required for each configuration type?
A.RAID 5 28 and RAID 1/0 18
B.RAID 5 31 and RAID 1/0 20
C.RAID 5 38 and RAID 1/0 24
D.RAID 5 43 and RAID 1/0 28
Correct Answers: A

2: A customer plans to create two regional offices that are between 800 and 2,000 km away from their main data center. Each regional office will have a data center that will serve four to six branch offices between 30 and 50 km away. At the close of business each evening the customer will shut down the application and transmit changes to each regional office. The amount of new information sent from the head office each night will vary from 0.5 and 1.5 GB. Later each night, an application at the regional offices will read the data from the head office and generate approximately 50 MB of new rate information appropriate for its branch offices. What is the most cost-effective EMC solution?
A.1. Configure CLARiiON arrays in each office.
2. Use MirrorView/A and T3 networks for all data transfers.
B.1. Configure Symmetrix arrays in the head office and CLARiiONs in the regional offices.
2. Use OC-3 networks to transmit the same master copy of data from the head office to the regional offices using Open Replicator.
3. At the regional offices, create a snap of the data received and transmit the changes to the branch offices using SAN Copy.
C.1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at all the main data centers and CLARiiONs at the regional and branch offices.
2. Use OC-3 network links between the main data centers.
3. Use DS-3 between the regional and branch offices.
4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case.
D.1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices.
2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices.
3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices.
4. Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices using T1 network links.
Correct Answers: D

3: A customer decided to consolidate their storage onto a Symmetrix. They have a mix of Windows and UNIX servers and want one copy of data for creating backups each night. They also want another copy to be made during the day. This second copy will be a standby to perform a fast recovery in the event of data corruption. The initial survey of the customer environment shows that the read/write ratio of their application is 1. 2 during the day and 5. 1 at night. The application appears to be highly sensitive to disk response times during the day. Which initial solution should be considered?
A.TimeFinder/Clones for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for backups at night
B.TimeFinder/Snap for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Clone for backups at night
C.TimeFinder/Snap for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for backups at night
D.TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Snaps for backups at night
Correct Answers: D

4: A customer has implemented a second Brocade director into their environment. They have moved several hosts and one of their two storage arrays onto the new director. When a large batch cycle was run, the customer experienced queuing on the directors when previously there was none. The customer discovered the following during their analysis of the issue. The hosts running the batch cycle used storage from both arrays. The only LUNs having problems came from the array attached to the new director. When the batch process was re-run with all LUNs made available through the original director, no problems were encountered. What would you recommend to solve the performance problem?
A.Add departmental switches to the fabric, creating a core/edge design
B.Change FSPF costs
C.Implement additional Brocade ISLs
D.Utilize Brocade ISL Trunking to optimize the ISL traffic
Correct Answers: D

5: You are designing an EMC ControlCenter solution for a new customer to reduce the overall storage and management costs. The customer would like management and reporting on a variety of hosts and storage systems. All managed objects are located in one data center. Which factors must you consider when designing an EMC ControlCenter infrastructure?
A.Network firewall type, number of hosts, and total storage capacity
B.Network firewall type, number of IP switches, and number of Fibre Channel switches
C.Network latency, number of Exchange servers, and number of Oracle database
D.Network latency, number of hosts, and number of arrays
Correct Answers: D

6: A customer has a SAN fabric consisting of several MDS-9509s for host to disk array connectivity. They have purchased a Fibre Channel tape library and want to implement LAN-free backups. You have proposed making a tape VSAN on the existing MDS infrastructure and have recommended that they use QoS so that tape I/O does not use ISL bandwidth at the expense of disk I/O. Which license is needed on the MDS directors?
A.Enterprise package
B.Fabric Manager Server
C.Storage Services Enabler package
D.Tape Write Acceleration package
Correct Answers: A

7: Using SAN Copy, a source Windows LUN of 100 GB has been copied to a 200 GB target LUN. After assigning the target LUN to the new host and running Disk Administrator to recognize the drive,what must be done to the Windows partition on the new host to see the LUN as 100 GB?
A.Nothing; the partition will be seen as 100 GB immediately
B.Run diskpart and set the partition size to 100 GB
C.Run the diskpar command and set the partition size to 100 GB
D.Run the format command and set the partition size to 100 GB
Correct Answers: A

8: A prospective customer has presented you with multiple applications. All applications have high write activity levels and unpredictable growth patterns. The applications are currently hosted on direct attached storage in a RAID 1 configuration. They are concerned with making too many changes at one time in their environment. The prospect has asked you to justify your recommendation of RAID 1/0 on the CLARiiON configuration you are proposing. How do you respond to the request?
A.RAID 1 has a higher write penalty than RAID 1/0
B.RAID 1 is less flexible for growing LUNs than RAID 1/0
C.RAID 1 is unavailable in current CLARiiON configurations
D.RAID 1 LUNs are unable to utilize write cache
Correct Answers: B

9: After you have a fully replicated copy on the BCVs that contain an Oracle database, which two files need to be incrementally copied in order to have a consistent database?
A.Archive log and redo files
B.Control and archive log files
C.Data and redo files
D.Redo and control files
Correct Answers: D

10: A customer currently manages their DMX environment with symcli within the storage group. They are instituting a third-shift operations group with minimal symcli experience. Third shift will perform storage tasks such as device creation, device mapping, and LUN masking. Which solution fits this expanding business requirement and organizational change?
A.StorageScope with StorageScope FLR
B.StorageScope without StorageScope FLR
C.Symmetrix Management Console
D.Symmetrix Manager
Correct Answers: C

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Latest EMC E20-820 Dumps

CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects: E20-820 Exam

  • E20-820 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-820
  • Exam Name: CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 132 Q&As

1: CE Casinos, Inc. has an application that gathers statistics from slot machines and saves the data to a CLARiiON LUN. Because I/O sizes are small, typically 8 KB or smaller, and the access pattern is very random, RAID-1/0 was chosen for the LUN, which is 512 GB in size.  I/Os are consistent at 100 writes/s for 24 hours a day.  This LUN must be replicated to a CX400 at a test site 10 km away for read-only data analysis. Data collection occurs between 8 am and 8 pm, and the analysis runs from midnight until 4 am. The link between sites is a dedicated 90 Mbps connection. What is the best solution for the customer’s needs?
A.Take a SnapView Snapshot of the Production LUN at 8 pm each night, and use SAN Copy to perform a full copy to the remote site. Stop the Session once analysis is complete.
B.Clone the Production LUN. Fracture the Clone at 8 pm each night, and use SAN Copy to perform a full copy to the remote site. Resynchronize the Clone once analysis is complete.
C.Mirror the Production LUN. Fracture the Mirror at 8 pm each night, and use a SnapView Snapshot of the secondary image for analysis. Resynchronize the Mirror once analysis starts.
D.Clone the Production LUN. Fracture the Clone at 8 pm each night, and use Incremental SAN Copy to perform a copy to the remote site. Resynchronize the Clone once analysis is complete.
E.Use Incremental SAN Copy to a remote LUN with the Production LUN as the source, and run the update at 8 pm each night. Use a Snapshot of the remote LUN for the analysis. Stop the SnapView Session once the analysis completes.
Correct Answers: C

2: BGH, Ltd, located close to Heathrow Airport in London is considering implementing a Disaster Recovery solution. The business requires the utmost data availability and can afford only minimal downtime should a disaster occur. The solution’s RTO should be considered in seconds to minutes and the RPO should be zero to minimal data loss. BGH currently uses a CLARiiON CX500 at the airport site and plans to install a DWDM link to its remote office 25 kilometers away. BGH also intends to utilize Legato AAM (Automated Availability Manager) to ensure speedy resumption of processing at the remote site. Which replication product would you recommend if BGH purchases a CX500 for the remote site?
A.SAN Copy
B.MirrorView
C.MirrorView A
D.Incremental SAN Copy
Correct Answers: B

3: When implementing SAN Copy Incremental over long-distances and the link latency is unknown, which setting will measure latency by sending test I/O to the destination?
A.Set Latency to Auto
B.Set Latency to Test
C.Set Link Bandwidth Auto
D.Set Latency to the lowest setting
Correct Answers: A

4: CTM, Ltd wants to use SAN Copy over IP with a McData 3300 FC/IP bridge. After completing the design, you notice that the CTM will have bandwidth problems due to the amount of data transferred in push mode over 10 Mb/s lines. The SAN Copy I/O size will be 512KB and the cable load time is 0.425 second. CTM cannot increase its bandwidth. Which feature can improve the amount of data transferred between two sites?
A.Set the number of default sessions to 4
B.Enable the Fast Write feature on the McData device
C.Set the Throttle value to 10 for all SAN Copy sessions
D.Change the SAN Copy buffer size value to 2048 blocks
Correct Answers: B

5: Your customer wants to add an additional Storage Group to its existing Exchange environment. You calculated its database uses 20 spindles. How many spindles should you allocate for its Log LUNs?
A.2
B.5
C.6
D.8
Correct Answers: A

6: Click the Exhibit button.
Review the replication solution shown in the graphic.  In the event of production data corruption, which best describes the required steps to recover production data from the remote Snapshot?

A.Unmount production LUNs, roll back Snap, restore mirror, mount production LUNs
B.Unmount production LUNs, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote mirror, mount production LUNs
C.Unmount production LUNs, promote mirror, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote mirror, mount production LUNs
D.Unmount production LUNs, roll back Snap ,promote mirror, fracture, synchronize, promote mirror, mount production LUNs
Correct Answers: C

7: You need to design a SAN Copy solution for performance. Data will be copied from a source CX700 to a target CX700. The two arrays are attached to the same SAN. There are a total of four source LUNs to be copied to four target LUNs. Single initiator zoning has been created for SAN Copy to include all ports on both CX700 arrays. Initial SAN Copy session settings are as follows:
Throttle level of 10
Buffer size of 2048 Blocks
How do you configure this SAN Copy implementation to ensure maximum throughput?
A.Change Throttle Level to zero and Buffer Size to 512 Blocks
B.Create a separate SAN Copy session for each source LUN and run one SAN Copy session at a time
C.Create a separate SAN Copy session for each source LUN and run all SAN Copy sessions simultaneously
D.Create one SAN Copy session and change zoning from single initiator to one large zone which includes all SP ports on both arrays
Correct Answers: C

8: The BMU Company runs an application with several LUNs that it wants to replicate remotely. You obtain the following information:
There are five 4+1 RAID-5 LUNs of 256 GB each
There are two RAID-1/0 LUNs of 128 GB each
The application uses 4 KB random I/Os on the RAID-5 LUNs, with a read/write ratio of 4:1
On the RAID-1/0 LUNs, the application writes sequential 4 KB I/Os, with no reads
Each LUN is on its own RAID Group, consisting of 146 GB drives
Average seek distance on the RAID-5 LUNs is 35 GB
Average seek distance on the RAID-1/0 LUNs is 0 GB
Each RAID-5 LUN performs 400 IOPs
Each RAID-1/0 LUN performs 500 IOPs
RPO is 30 minutes Assume a 2:1 compression ratio for all data.
What is the link speed needed to connect the MirrorView/A sites?
A.52 Mbps
B.104 Mbps
C.156 Mbps
D.208 Mbps
Correct Answers: A

9: Volume Managers allow the use of plaids on the CLARiiON. The primary performance impact is the manner in which CLARiiON LUNs are striped. Which two [2] points must be considered?
A.Plaids are only useful when the overlying applications are multi-threaded
B.Use host based RAID implementations that do not require parity calculation
C.Use host based RAID implementations that require parity calculation (i.e. RAID-3, RAID-5)
D.LUNs should not be plaid together from RAID groups with different RAID types or stripe sizes
E.The host manager stripe element size has to be equal to, or smaller than the CLARiiON LUN stripe size
Correct Answers: B D

10: CDF Inc. wants to purchase a CLARiiON array to add to its SAN.  Path Failover and Load Balancing are requirements. CDF already owns and uses DMP on its Symmetrix.  What are two [2] solutions you would recommend?
A.Dual HBAs with no cross zoning and DMP
B.Dual HBAs with no cross zoning and PowerPath
C.Multiple HBAs,  Multi-path with cross zoning utilizing four FC ports per SP, and DMP
D.Dual HBAs, Multi-path with cross zoning utilizing two FC ports per SP, and PowerPath
E.Multiple HBAs, Multi-path with cross zoning utilizing four FC ports per SP, and PowerPath
Correct Answers: D E

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Latest EMC E20-520 Dumps

alriion Solutions Specialist Exam: E20-520 Exam

  • E20-520 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-520
  • Exam Name: Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam
  • Q & A: 192 Q&As

1: Which Navisphere Event Monitor model uses an SP agent to monitor only the storage system on which the SP agent resides?
A.Individual
B.Enterprise
C.Distributed
D.Centralized
Correct Answers: C

2: THB Corporation has a database consisting of one log LUN and four data LUNs. The company plans to mirror the database to two remote locations with MirrorView/S. How should it plan to maintain the consistency of the database?
A.Create a MirrorView/S consistency group, and ensure that all five mirrors are members of the consistency group
B.Consistency cannot be maintained with MirrorView/S. They should consider MirrorView/A with consistency groups
C.Consistency cannot be maintained because MirrorView/S does not support consistency groups with two secondary images
D.Consistency cannot be maintained because MirrorView/S does not support consistency groups where log LUNs are members
Correct Answers: C

3: What is a valid Navisphere CLI command?
A.navicli getlun -h 192.168.2.125
B.navicli -d 192.168.2.125 getlun -rg
C.navicli -h 192.168.2.125 getlun -rg
D.java.jar navicli -address 192.168.2.16 metalun -list
Correct Answers: C

4: The CFM Corporation believes its data is going through the wrong switch in the fabric. They put a protocol analyzer online to capture the output. Where should they look to see if the data is being routed incorrectly?
A.The fourth byte of the destination WWPN
B.The eighth byte of the destination WWPN
C.The first byte of the destination Fibre Channel address
D.The second byte of the destination Fibre Channel address
Correct Answers: C

5: Which option is selectable in the Create RAID Group dialogue box?
A.RAID Type
B.RAID Group ID
C.Enable Write Cache
D.Manual Destroy after LUN is unbound
Correct Answers: B

6: What is one way a Snapshot provides a “point-in-time” view of a source LUN?
A.By writing the new data to the Reserved LUN pool each time it changes
B.By writing the new data to the Reserved LUN pool the first time it changes
C.By copying the original data to the Reserved LUN pool the first time it changes
D.By limiting the number of Snapshots to eight that can be assigned to a LUN at the same time
Correct Answers: C

7: What is an attribute of a Clone Private LUN?
A.Contains Fracture Logs
B.Contains Write Intent Logs
C.Must be the same RAID type as the source LUN
D.Shared by both storage processors simultaneously
Correct Answers: A

8: The VisualSRM agent installation can be performed locally on each host. What other method can be used for installation?
A.pkgadd utility
B.Pull installation
C.Push installation
D.At system reboot
Correct Answers: C

9: What is a characteristic of Event Monitor?
A.Integrated with Navisphere Manager
B.Loaded as a separately purchased NDU
C.Monitors for hardware-related events only
D.Monitors only for Navisphere defined events
Correct Answers: A

10: Which function is disabled when PowerPath is installed without a license key?
A.Failover
B.Multipathing
C.LUNZ functionality
D.Access to peer SP paths
Correct Answers: B

11: Which feature does the PowerPath GUI provide to users?
A.Change the failover policy of a LUN
B.Change the CLARiiON SP from active to standby
C.Provide the CLARiiON with active-active failover policy
D.PowerPath is required for a host to connect to a storage group
Correct Answers: A

12: Which feature best describes the PSM LUN on the CX series?
A.Each SP accesses its own copy
B.Default size is 2GB on a CX array
C.Not viewable in Navisphere Manager
D.Created after array initialization by the user
Correct Answers: C

13: In an Emulex HBA Solaris host Installation, which file is edited to force the host to perform a Fabric login to a switch?
A.sd.conf
B.lpfc.conf
C.lputil.conf
D./etc/system
Correct Answers: B

14: What is a feature of Access Logix?
A.LUN Masking
B.Controls access to data through file locking
C.Masks host WWNs via Access Control lists
D.Restricts one host at a time to accessing one LUN at a time
Correct Answers: A

15: How does a SAN Copy session failover upon SP failure?
A.Automatically, via PowerPath
B.Manually, via user intervention
C.Conditionally, via host intervention
D.Automatically, via storage system redundancy
Correct Answers: B

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Latest EMC E20-329 Dumps

Technology Architect Backup Recovery Solutions Design Exam: E20-329 Exam

  • E20-329 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-329
  • Exam Name: Technology Architect Backup Recovery Solutions Design Exam
  • Q & A: 79 Q&As

1.An EMC Avamar customer s Gen-1 system with 4 TB of GSAN capacity has reached read-only
threshold. The customer indicates that the deduplicated backup data accounts for approximately 3.5 TB.
What is the most likely cause for the read-only threshold being reached?
A. Deduplication rate is less than expected, accounting for the remaining GSAN capacity
B. Combination of system overhead, logs, and checkpoints account for the remaining GSAN capacity
C. RAIN overhead accounts for the remaining available GSAN capacity
D. Checkpoints and logs account for the remaining GSAN capacity
Answer: C

2.A customer has an operational EMC NetWorker enviroment using an Avamar deduplication node. They want to protect the Avamar deduplication node using replication. The customer has approached EMC for advice on what considerations thaey should take into account.
What is a consideration in this envitonment.?
A. NetWorker automatically configures all replication targets associated with a given deduplication node
B. Scheduled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in Avamar
C. Recovery from the replications node must be performed from Avamar Administror
D. Schedled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in NetWorkwe
Answer: B

3.The EMC account team has been asked to design a NetWorkwwe backup solution with the following requirements.
1. One copy of backup data needs to be stored locally.
2. An additional copy of backup data needs to be stored on tape at an offsite location.
What should be done to satisfy the new regulations with minimal impact to the current backup
performance?
A. Clone to tape and send the clone copy to the remote location
B. Back up the data concurrently to the remote and local locations
C. Archive the backup data to the remote location
D. Archive the data to the remote location before being backed up locally
Answer: C

4.An organization is backing up a combination of databases, e-mail, and file system data types in their data center to a Data Domain appliance using a single backup server. The backup system administrator creates separate subdirectories for each of the three data types under the default share.
What benefit is provided by this approach?
A. Analyze compression with more granularity
B. Simplity backup device configuration
C. Enhance performance of the database backup
D. Improve file system cleaning performance
Answer: B

5.Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
Acustomer has a new Avamar server with four 2 TB data nodes. This server is backing up two Avamar clients. The first client has 8 GB of RAM and two file systems. The first file system has 3 million files consuming. 75 TB. The second file system contains 5 million files consuming 1 TB of space.
The second client has 10 GB of RAM and one file system containing 4 million files consuming 1.2 TB of space. Both clients will belong to the same backup group. How long will the steady-state backup group be expected to run?
A. 5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 Hours
Answer: B

7.As illustrated in the exhibit, a customer has a backup environment that includes clients and server managed by a backup media server. Data is written to a primary storage device and archived to an application server. The customer has onsite retention strorage, which is replicated to a disaster recovery site. In addition, archive-to-tape is requires.
Which components would you replace when initiating a Data Domain solution?
A. onsite retention storage and offsite disaster recivery storage
B. Backup media server and clients
C. Primary storage and onsite retention storage
D. Backup media server and archive application server
Answer: A

8.A customer has a Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity. The customer does not want to purchase any additional storage.
Wht will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Increase the snapshot expiration period
C. Increase the nurrter of strearns
D. Decrease the cleaning frequency
Answer: A

9.Acustomer is piloting a Data Domain appliance and notices that performance in the writing of backups is not optimal. Based on the System Show Performance metrics represented in the exhibit, which operation will provide the most improved the most improved performance?
A. Reduce the read streams
B. Suspend verification
C. Disable cleaning
D. Disable replication
Answer: A

10.A customer is using Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to moitor their backup enviroment. What is a benefit of using remote Collectors?
A. Reduces the amount of information being transferred to the DPA server
B. Collects system-related statistics for a given host
C. Improves the collection performance of backup statistics
D. Provides more complete backup reports
Answer: B

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Latest EMC E20-329 Dumps

Technology Architect Backup Recovery Solutions Design Exam: E20-329 Exam

  • E20-329 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-329
  • Exam Name: Technology Architect Backup Recovery Solutions Design Exam
  • Q & A: 79 Q&As

1.An EMC Avamar customer s Gen-1 system with 4 TB of GSAN capacity has reached read-only
threshold. The customer indicates that the deduplicated backup data accounts for approximately 3.5 TB.
What is the most likely cause for the read-only threshold being reached?
A. Deduplication rate is less than expected, accounting for the remaining GSAN capacity
B. Combination of system overhead, logs, and checkpoints account for the remaining GSAN capacity
C. RAIN overhead accounts for the remaining available GSAN capacity
D. Checkpoints and logs account for the remaining GSAN capacity
Answer: C

2.A customer has an operational EMC NetWorker enviroment using an Avamar deduplication node. They want to protect the Avamar deduplication node using replication. The customer has approached EMC for advice on what considerations thaey should take into account.
What is a consideration in this envitonment.?
A. NetWorker automatically configures all replication targets associated with a given deduplication node
B. Scheduled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in Avamar
C. Recovery from the replications node must be performed from Avamar Administror
D. Schedled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in NetWorkwe
Answer: B

3.The EMC account team has been asked to design a NetWorkwwe backup solution with the following requirements.
1. One copy of backup data needs to be stored locally.
2. An additional copy of backup data needs to be stored on tape at an offsite location.
What should be done to satisfy the new regulations with minimal impact to the current backup
performance?
A. Clone to tape and send the clone copy to the remote location
B. Back up the data concurrently to the remote and local locations
C. Archive the backup data to the remote location
D. Archive the data to the remote location before being backed up locally
Answer: C

4.An organization is backing up a combination of databases, e-mail, and file system data types in their data center to a Data Domain appliance using a single backup server. The backup system administrator creates separate subdirectories for each of the three data types under the default share.
What benefit is provided by this approach?
A. Analyze compression with more granularity
B. Simplity backup device configuration
C. Enhance performance of the database backup
D. Improve file system cleaning performance
Answer: B

5.Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
Acustomer has a new Avamar server with four 2 TB data nodes. This server is backing up two Avamar clients. The first client has 8 GB of RAM and two file systems. The first file system has 3 million files consuming. 75 TB. The second file system contains 5 million files consuming 1 TB of space.
The second client has 10 GB of RAM and one file system containing 4 million files consuming 1.2 TB of space. Both clients will belong to the same backup group. How long will the steady-state backup group be expected to run?
A. 5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 Hours
Answer: B

7.As illustrated in the exhibit, a customer has a backup environment that includes clients and server managed by a backup media server. Data is written to a primary storage device and archived to an application server. The customer has onsite retention strorage, which is replicated to a disaster recovery site. In addition, archive-to-tape is requires.
Which components would you replace when initiating a Data Domain solution?
A. onsite retention storage and offsite disaster recivery storage
B. Backup media server and clients
C. Primary storage and onsite retention storage
D. Backup media server and archive application server
Answer: A

8.A customer has a Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity. The customer does not want to purchase any additional storage.
Wht will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Increase the snapshot expiration period
C. Increase the nurrter of strearns
D. Decrease the cleaning frequency
Answer: A

9.Acustomer is piloting a Data Domain appliance and notices that performance in the writing of backups is not optimal. Based on the System Show Performance metrics represented in the exhibit, which operation will provide the most improved the most improved performance?
A. Reduce the read streams
B. Suspend verification
C. Disable cleaning
D. Disable replication
Answer: A

10.A customer is using Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to moitor their backup enviroment. What is a benefit of using remote Collectors?
A. Reduces the amount of information being transferred to the DPA server
B. Collects system-related statistics for a given host
C. Improves the collection performance of backup statistics
D. Provides more complete backup reports
Answer: B

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Latest EMC E20-591 Dumps

Backup Recovery Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects: E20-591 Exam

  • E20-591 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-591
  • Exam Name: Backup Recovery Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 71 Q&As

1.In an EMC Avamar backup, what is the role of sticky-byte factoring?
A. Determines which chunks are sent to theAvamar server
B. Consistently creates 24 KB chunks
C. Determines which files to chunk
D. Consistently produces the same chunk result on unchanged data
Answer: D

2.An administrator wants to back up an EMC Celerra with Avamar using a single NDMP accelerator node.
Based on EMC best practices, what is the maximum number of files that can be backed up per backup job?
A. 5 million
B. 10 million
C. 15 million
D. 20 million
Answer: B

3.Which EMC NetWorker feature is used to perform a backup based on an event?
A. Application modules
B. Directives
C. Scheduled backups
D. Pro-bebased backups
Answer: D

4.Where is deduplicated data stored on a Data Domain system?
A. SATA drives
B. NVRAM
C. SCSI drives
D. PATA drives
Answer: A

5.If multiple backup streams are written to a backup device at the same time, which feature is being used?
A. Server parallelism
B. Twinning
C. Multiplexing
D. Client parallelism
Answer: C

6.A customer is using the NetWorker Module for Microsoft Applications (NMM) to protect the following environment:
* Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 using Cluster Continuous Replication (CCR) that resides on an EMC CLARiiON disk array.
* A Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service hardware provider is used to create point-in-time
copies of production data.
What is a characteristic of an NMM backup operation?
A. NMM needs to be reconfigured after an Exchange CCR role change
B. NMM can back up to a device on the Exchange CCR passive node
C. NMM automatically recognizes the passive node after an Exchange CCR role change
D. NMM synchronizes the Exchange CCR passive node before the backup operation
Answer: C

7.An EMC NetWorker customer has added the following application to their environment:
Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 residing on an EMC CLARiiON disk array.
A Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service hardware provider is used to create point-in-time copies of production data.
What is a requirement to perform serverless backups?
A. NetWorker storage node software needs to be installed on the Exchange server
B. NetWorker Module for Microsoft Applications needs to be installed on the proxy server
C. NetWorker Module for Exchange and NetWorker VSS Client for Microsoft Windows
D. NetWorker Module for Exchange needs to be installed on the NetWorker server
Answer: B

8.An EMC NetWorker customer needs to improve the RTO for all backups retained onsite. Most of the backup jobs consist of images and other scientific data. The customer requires daily tape out for long-term offsite retention. Which product addresses these challenges?
A. EMC Disk Library
B. NetWorker deduplication node
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: A

9.Which Avamar node is dedicated to providing internal Avamar server processes and services?
A. Spare
B. Storage
C. Utility
D. Accelerator
Answer: C

10.An EMC NetWorker customer wants to start performing client backups to a deduplication node. What is a requirement when scheduling these backups using NetWorker?
A. First backup must be a full backup
B. Database backups must be full backups
C. All backups must be full backups
D. Schedule must not include any incremental backups
Answer: A

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Latest EMC E22-275 Dumps

RecoverPoint Data Replication and Recovery Exam: E22-275 Exam

  • E22-275 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E22-275
  • Exam Name: RecoverPoint Data Replication and Recovery Exam
  • Q & A: 120 Q&As

1.Which volumes must be masked to all RPAs when deploying the CLARiiON splitter?
A. The replication volumes plus the journal and repository
B. None, the CLARiiON splitter performs all masking for Recoverpoint
C. Only the replication volumes
D. The journal and repository volumes
Answer: A

2.What are the required components to implement RecoverPoint CDP.?
A. Repository volumes and journal volume
B. Journal volumes and WAN link
C. Fabric splitter and repository volume
D. Repository volume and WAN link
Answer: A

3.What is the maximum number of DVTs per MSM module that can be created in a SANTap environment?
A. 64
B. 256
C. 128
D. 32
Answer: C

4.For the RPA to be able to use LUNs during replication,AIX SCSI-2 reservation on those LUNs must be disabled. What should you run to check if reservations are enabled for a storage device?
A. ls -al /dev/
B. lsattr -El
C. lsdev -fcs0
D. chdev -l
Answer: B

5.A CE is using Deployment Manager to install two RPAs in a new CDP configuration. All the RPAs are rack mounted, and FC and IP networks are connected. The RP As are loaded with the same ISO image and IP addresses are set. However, the Deployment Manager fails. What is a possible cause?
A. The customer s PC must be on the same subnet as the RPAs.
B. The customer must ensure that port 22 is open on their PC or network.
C. The customer should not set the IP addresses on the new RPAs first.
D. The customer must connect to the RPAs using a crossover cable for the first installation.
Answer: B

6.A customer found that their RPAs using QLA23xx HBAs are having strange I/O errors. Finally they determined the problem is from zoning. What should they do to fix it?
A. Pair one initiator mode HBA and two target mode HBAs into one zone.
B. Separate zoning of the RPA HBA into initiator and target mode zones.
C. Pair one initiator mode HBA and one target mode HBA into one zone.
D. Put all RPA HBAs on the RPA into a single zone.
Answer: B

7.A customer is implementing a RecoverPoint/SE environment with CLARiiON splitters. They have many CLARiiONs in their environment that they would like to integrate with RecoverPoint/SE. What is the maximum number of CLARiiON splitter-enabled storage arrays supported by the the new ecoverPoint/SE cluster?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 20
D. 10
Answer: A

8.You are configuring a SAS splitter. You now want to make the splitter visible to the RPAs. Which steps must you complete next?
A. Virtual initiators must be masked to the LUNs to be replicated.
B. The RPA target zone must be created and activated.
C. The host initiators must be bound to their virtual targets.
D. The RPA front-end zone must be created and activated.
Answer: B

9.You ve implemented an AIX host-based splitter on the replica side. Now you need to test the data integrity. What would be your first step?
A. Import volume group
B. Enable image access
C. Mount the replica volume
D. Export volume group
Answer: B

10.be set for the storage ports in the back-end and front-end VSANs?
A. ESX and Windows
B. AIX,Solaris, and Linux
C. AIX and HP-UX
D. HP-UX and Linux
Answer: C

11.A customer has asked you to evaluate their RecoverPoint configuration. It is a CRR implementation.
They are experiencing high load events for many consistency groups assigned to RPA1. RPA2 CGs seem to be fine. What would you recommend to avoid this?
A. Regularty run detect_bottlenecks to balance the load of all CGS.
B. Utilize compression level 10 under CG policies.
C. Implement QoS on the WAN.
D. Balance the load between all RPAs. Utilize distributed CGs where necessary.
Answer: A

12.What component of the Brocade SAS splitter gives RPAs access to the storage targets for consistency groups that use reservations?
A. Virtual target (VT)
B. Appliance virtual target (AVT)
C. System virtual initiator (SVI)
D. Data path controller (DPC)
Answer: B

13.The customer has created a group set with four CGs. After a few days, they discovered automatic bookmarking wasn t working. What is the possible reason?
A. All CGs must be running in asynchronous mode.
B. All CGs must be running in synchronous mode.
C. A group set can only support two CGs.
D. The source sites of the CGs are different from each other.
Answer: D

14.A customer running RecoverPoint 3.0 wants to expand their cluster from four nodes to eight nodes.
What step should be performed during the expansion?
A. After the first node has been reconfigured, import its changed settings onto the remaining RPAs.
B. The repository volume must be formatted on all the nodes in the original RPA cluster.
C. Untilize the Add New RPAs Wizard in the Deployment Manager to add the RPAs nondisruptively.
D. Add the new RPAs to the cluster before the fourth node is reconfigured.
Answer: C

15.Refer to the exjibit. Which type of consistency group data flow transfer phase is represented by thegraphic?

A. Synchronous non-distributed groups
B. Asynchronous non-distributed groups
C. Asynchronous distributed groups
D. Synchronous distributed groups
Answer: C

16.You are configuring RecoverPoint using only the SANTap splitter. Which physical node ports should be placed in which VSAN?
A. Host HBAs and storage ports in the front-end VSAN, all RPA ports in the back-end VSAN
B. Host HBAs alone in the front-end VSAN; all RPAs and storage ports in the back-end VSAN
C. Host HBAs in the back-end VSAN; all RPAd and storage ports in the front-end VSAN
D. Host-HBAs and RPA target ports in the front-end VSAN; RPAs initiator and storage ports in the back-end VSAN
Answer: B

17.Which user ID do you use to log in to the blade processor of s Connectrix AP-7600 when you want to verify the status of the RecoverPoint agent?
A. adminstrator
B. admin
C. root
D. boxmgmt
Answer: C

18.A customer is implementing a new six-node Gen4 RPA environment with multiple fabrics. You are required to zone for a host-based splitter configuration. What must be considered to properly zone the RPAs?
A. Each RPA must be connected to only one fabric.
B. RPA WWNs can be recognized by their 50:06:10:60 prefix.
C. Use RPA HBA ports as both initiators and targets.
D. Zoning only needs a host to storage zones and a host to RPA zones.
Answer: C

19.Which SANTsp object is used as a virtual target in the front-end VSAN?
A. CVT
B. AVT
C. DVT
D. DPP
Answer: C

20.A customer has an environment with hosts sustaining 200 MB/s with bursts up to 400 MB/s. What is the minimum recommended configuration for a RecoverPoint CRR implementation?
A. Four RPAs at each site
B. Two RPAs each site
C. Six RPAs at each site
D. Eight RPAs at each site
Answer: A

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Latest EMC E22-290 Dumps

EMC Data Domain Deduplication, Backup and Recovery Exam: E22-290 Exam

  • E22-290 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E22-290
  • Exam Name: EMC Data Domain Deduplication, Backup and Recovery Exam
  • Q & A: 120 Q&As

1.What is a benefit of snapshots on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Requires ndisk space to store
B.Provides NDMP backups ta remote site
C.Included with the replication license
D.Provides data restoration from a specific point in time for deleted data
Answer: D

2.An EMC Data Domain customer has setup a DVTL for their backup software.They created slots, drives, and tapes.The backup software shows the tape drives and the robot, but not the tapes Which step was missed on the Data Domain system?
A.Tape labels are not defined
B.Configure Fibre Channel LUN masking
C.Incorrect media type is defined
D.Import the virtuel tapes in the VTL
Answer: D

3.A customer is attempting tcreate a read-only copy of their backup data on an EMC Data Domain system tachieve additional protection.Which Data Domain system feature would accomplish this requirement?
A.Snapshot
B.Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.Fastcopy
D.Retention Lock
Answer: A

4.A customer is currently using an EMC Data Domain system with VTL configured over Fibre
Channel.They have a requirement tarchive to tape Which process is used to transport data to tape?
A.Use the tape export function on the Data Domain system
B.Use the backup software to move backup data to tape
C.Use the Enterprise Manager on the Data Domain system
D.Use the VTL intertace to eject tapes to ptrysical tapes
Answer: B

5. A customer has an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) environment with multiple EMC Data Domain systems.Backups are stored on Data Domain system A and replicated to Data Domain system B.The Tape Library contains a copy pool
Based on the exhibit, how many copies of the data must the TSM server database track at the primary
site?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

6.Which EMC Data Domain technology allows inline deduplication toccur fast and efficientty?
A.SISL scaling architecture
B.Data Domain Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.DDBoost
D.SATA
Answer: A

7.A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system over CIFS using Symantec NetBackup.How would the Data Domain system be configured on the backup server?
A.adv_file device
B.Jukebox
C.Storage unit
D.Backup-to-diskfolder
Answer: C

8.An organization currentvwites backups tan EMC Data Domain system and then creates encrypted copies of their backups on tapes.These tapes are then shipped ta thi rd-party offsite vault They are now planning tdeploy a second Data Domain system to a secure data center at their corporate headquarters as a replication target treplace the use of the offsite tapes The twsites are connected through the Internet
Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain systems tensure a similar level of data security as achieved by their current process?
A.Encrypt the data at rest
B.Encrypt the replication context
C.Encrypt the data at rest and the replication context
D.Encryption is not required
Answer: B

9.What is the default behavior for messages log files in an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
B.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
C.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
D.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
Answer: C

10.

What does the term “compression factor” refer tin the exhibit?
A.Aggregate data reduction ratio
B.Data sent tthe EMC Data Domain system
C.Space used after compression
D.Total available space remaining
Answer: A

11.

A customer has a backup environment with an EMC Data Domain system usinq DD Boost as Illustrated In the exhibit.Distributed Segment Processing IS enabled
Which component segments the data in the deduplication process?
A.LAN Clients
B.Backup Server
C.Data Domain system A
D.Data Domain system B
Answer: B

12.When using link aggregation across Ethernet ports on an EMC Data Domain system.which OSllayers provide load balancing by use of the IP layer?
A.1 and3
B.1 and4
C.2and3
D.3and4
Answer: D

13.A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system in their EMC NetWorker environment using CIFS as illustrated in the exhibit A CIFS share named “bkp001” has been created on the Data Domain system
How should the backup device be configured in NetWorker?
A.rd=sn_A\\dd01\bkp001
B.\\dd01\bkp001
C.rd=ddOl/bkp001
D.rd=server_A\\dd01\bkp001
Answer: A

14.Why would you increase the MTU size on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Maximize performance when using 10Gb Ethernet
B.Support Ethernet frames smaller than 1500 bytes
C.Support 1 Gb/s Ethernet frames
D.Maxi mize performance when using 100 Mb/s Fast Ethernet
Answer: A

15.A customer has enabled CIFS and configured the CIFS shares on an EMC Data Domain system to allow access through a Symantec NetBackup Media Server.What is a step that must be done on the Media Server tenable read/write access tthe shared directory and configure the devices?
A.Configure a NetBackup disk pool to be used by the NetBackup devices
B.Enable the DD Boost plugin on the NetBackup Media Server
C.Create a mapped network drive that reconnects when the NetBackup service is started
D.Confi gure the NetBackup servi ces tstart as a user that has access tthe share
Answer: D

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Latest EMC E22-250 Dumps

Network Management – Smarts Administration: E22-250 Exam

  • E22-250 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: EMC E22-250
  • Exam Name: Network Management – Smarts Administration
  • Q & A: 186 Q&As

1: A switch appears down in Service Assurance Manager. After trying to troubleshoot the problem, an operator finds out that the switch has been removed from service. Why didn’t this switch automatically become Unmanaged in Smarts?
A.IP Availability Manager needs to be restarted to remove this switch.
B.Other devices that were connected to this switch are still reachable by Smarts.
C.This switch requires rediscovery.
D.Unmanaging devices is a manual process.
Correct Answers: D

2: You want to enhance your existing AM Domain Manager by adding Smarts IP Performance monitoring to your installation. You are running Service Assurance Manager version 7.1.0. What should you do to be sure the upgraded AM is sending the correct information to SAM?
A.Ensure that the Domain Type for the Domain Manager has been changed to INCHARGE-AM-PM-SUITE
B.Launch performance reporting to see if performance data gathering is working
C.Make sure SAM has been restarted after installing the new IP Performance license
D.Verify your IP Domain Manager has been renamed to include “PM”
Correct Answers: A

3: The network administrator asked that all remote branch access routers be polled more often to get more granular measurement of performance metrics. What needs to be done?
A.Copy the existing Router Polling group and split the members between the two groups
B.Create a new Polling group for the branch office routers with a shorter polling interval
C.Create a new Threshold group and set the Polling setting in the Threshold Window to a lower value
D.Reduce the Threshold to accommodate the new requirement
Correct Answers: B

4: Which Performance Monitor Setting will give early warning that an interface is too busy?
A.LinkTrapThreshold
B.MaxUptimeThreshold
C.Restart Trap Window
D.UtilizationThreshold
Correct Answers: D

5: Which adapter pulls topology and events from the underlying Domain Manager to the Service Assurance Manager?
A.dxa adapter
B.syslog adapter
C.trap adapter
D.xml adapter
Correct Answers: A

6: You want to perform a discovery of devices in the pending state. You want to schedule this discovery using cron. Which Smarts command utility can be used to trigger this type of discovery in an IP Availability Domain Manager?
A.sm_ems
B.sm_service
C.sm_topodump
D.sm_tpmgr
Correct Answers: D

7: A telecommunications company has already mapped its customers to the network topology provisioning tool. Into which Smarts product could you import that information?
A.Business Impact Manager
B.IP Availability Manager
C.Service Assurance Manager
D.Smarts Adapter Manager
Correct Answers: A

8: The customer wants to install the IP Availability Management Suite on a SUSE Linux server. Which IP Management Suite document can be used to determine if this operating system is supported?
A.Deployment Guide
B.Installation Guide
C.System Administration Guide
D.User’s Guide
Correct Answers: B

9: dmctl -s IP invoke ICF_PersistenceManager::ICF-PersistenceManager save
What effect will the above command have on Smarts?
A.Correlation will occur immediately.
B.Domain Manager topology changes are discarded.
C.The Codebook will be recomputed.
D.The repository will be written to a file.
Correct Answers: D

10: Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedVia/ConnectedTo
B.PackagedIn/Packages
C.Realizes/RealizedBy
D.Underlying/LayeredOver
Correct Answers: C

11: Which sm_server parameters are required when starting a Service Assurance Manager?
A.–name and –config
B.–name and –port
C.–server and –config
D.–server and –port
Correct Answers: A

12: Where are the Global Console map background files stored?
A.BASEDIR\smarts\local\conf\images\backgrounds
B.BASEDIR\smarts\local\images\
C.BASEDIR\smarts\local\images\backgrounds
D.BASEDIR\smarts\local\images\icons
Correct Answers: C

13: You noticed that the selective group you created is named incorrectly. How would you fix this?
A.Create a new group with the correct name, duplicate the criteria used in the mistitled group, and delete the old group
B.Delete the entire group tree and start over
C.Double-click on the selective group and change the name in the Properties dialog box
D.Right-click on the selective group, choose Properties, and then change the Title entry to the correct name
Correct Answers: A

14: Where do you set the value of MaximumUptime for the Dial-On-Demand interfaces?
A.Polling and Thresholds Console > Threshold tab > Interface Groups
B.Polling and Thresholds Console > Threshold tab > Port Groups – Access Ports
C.Polling and Thresholds Console > Threshold tab > Port Groups – Trunk Ports
D.Polling and Thresholds Console > Threshold tab > System Resource Groups
Correct Answers: A

15: Click the Exhibit button.
The current weights.conf file contains:
Which impact value would be calculated for this Switch Down problem?
A.130
B.232
C.330
D.332
Correct Answers: D

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Latest EMC E20-120 Dumps

EMC Content Management Foundations Exam: E20-120 Exam

  • E20-120 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-120
  • Exam Name: EMC Content Management Foundations Exam
  • Q & A: 238 Q&As

1. Where do you enable the drag and drop plugin for Webtop?
A. File menu
B. Tools menu
C. Preferences
D. Documentum Administrator
Answer: C

2. Which statement is true about the ability to drag and drop objects from one folder to another within Webtop?
A. It is a default feature.
B. The drag and drop plugin must be enabled.
C. The feature must be enabled in Preferences.
D. The feature is only available through the clipboard.
Answer: A

3. What can provide quick access to frequently referenced objects?
A. alias set
B. subscription
C. replica object
D. relation object
Answer: B

4. Which statement about virtual document components is true?
A. To add an object to a virtual document, the object must be checked out.
B. An object can be a component of more than one virtual document simultaneously.
C. When an object is added to a virtual document, the Content Server makes a new copy of the object.
D. Once an object becomes a component of a virtual document, it can never be removed from the virtual document.
Answer: B

5. You are using Documentum Administrator to create a user.
To accomplish this, the default value for the Default Folder property is set to _____.
A. use the Temp cabinet
B. use the System cabinet
C. select any existing cabinet
D. create a new cabinet for the user
Answer: D

6. When creating a permission set, what are the default values assigned to dm_owner and dm_world?
A. dm_world None, dm_owner Delete
B. dm_world – None, dm_owner – Write
C. dm_world Read, dm_owner – Delete
D. dm_world Read, dm_owner Write
Answer: C

7. Which element of a workflow template represents a task in a business process?
A. state
B. activity
C. package
D. work item
Answer: B

8. Lifecycles are implemented as an instance of which object type?
A. dm_policy
B. dm_relation
C. dm_lifecycle
D. dm_state_type
Answer: A

9. Which DQL keyword is used to return current and non-current versions of an object in a Documentum repository?
A. *
B. (all)
C. CURRENT
D. VERSION=’*’
Answer: B

10. When does the Content Server resolve an alias on a sysobject?
A. every time the object is checked in
B. the first time the object is checked in
C. when the object’s lifecycle state changes
D. when the object is linked to a folder in the repository
Answer: B

11. A user wants to list the names of all documents with names that begin with ‘mast.’
How would the user complete the following query to accomplish this?
select object_name from dm_document _____.
A. where object_name like ‘mast*’
B. where object_name like ‘mast%’
C. where object_name like ‘*mast*’
D. where object_name like ‘%mast%’
Answer: B

12. The repository installation has requirements of high demand and mitigation of single points of failure.
Which set of Documentum components can be built with multiple instances to fulfill this requirement?
A. Application Server, database
B. Business Object Registry, DFC
C. cabinet structure, Index Server
D. Content Server, Connection Broker
Answer: D

13. Which implementation of distributed content architecture provides for both content and metadata to be
synchronized across multiple repositories?
A. object replication
B. Site Caching Services
C. federated repositories
D. distributed storage areas
Answer: A

14. The Documentum repository consists of which mandatory components?
A. Application Server and Index Server
B. Index Server and File Storage System
C. Application Server and File Storage System
D. File Storage System and Relational Database
Answer: D

15. What restrictions are placed on content file formats stored in the Documentum repository?
A. must be Microsoft Office formats
B. must be Microsoft Office formats or PDF
C. no restrictions – any format is supported
D. must install special software for some formats
Answer: C

16. Which service does the Documentum repository use to transfer content from third-party applications that do not have plug-ins or connectors?
A. Library Services
B. Content Storage Services
C. Federated Search Services
D. Application Integration Services
Answer: D

17. What software service enables the automated movement of content between tiers of storage?
A. Library Services
B. Federated Services
C. Content Storage Services
D. Application Integration Services
Answer: C

18. What is the main role of the Content Server?
A. manages and secures content
B. creates pdf and html renditions of content
C. indexes content and provides search functionality
D. creates and manages DocApps and Custom Types
Answer: A

19. To reduce the administration of managing multiple content repositories spread across geographical areas, what architecture should be implemented?
A. content replication
B. Site Caching Services
C. federated repositories
D. distributed storage areas
Answer: C

20. Object metadata is stored in _____.
A. a flat file
B. the content store
C. the Content Server
D. a relational database
Answer: D

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Latest EMC E20-822 Dumps

CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators: E20-822 Exam

  • E20-822 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-822
  • Exam Name: CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators
  • Q & A: 132 Q&As

1: A customer runs its critical Oracle environment through a Fibre Channel connection to a CX3-40c. In order to leverage the existing iSCSI connections, management decides to allocate a small amount of storage to support several Windows file servers. The customer needs to make certain that the Oracle SLA is not impacted by the non-critical Windows file servers. Which solution do you recommend?
A.Use Navisphere Quality of Service Manager to set limits on applications connected through iSCSI
B.Change the write aside cache value for Windows LUNs
C.Use Navisphere Service Taskbar to assign a higher SLA to the Oracle environment
D.CX3-40c will automatically assign higher priority to FC connections over iSCSI
Correct Answers: A

2: Click the Exhibit button.
The application using LUN 21 performs mainly 16 kB I/O operations. What is true of LUN 21?
A.Read performance would improve if read cache was increased from 250 MB to 500 MB
B.The application performs mainly read-modify-write-read operations
C.The read cache hit ratio is above 50%
D.The read I/O access pattern is largely random
Correct Answers: D

3: You are a storage administrator who has been tasked with sizing a database LUN for an Exchange 2007 mailbox server. You have been provided with the following information regarding basic capacity requirements:
450 users
200 MB mailbox size
2.5 MB mail sent\day
Deleted items retained for 14 days
Deleted mailboxes retained for 30 days
You have also been provided with additional information regarding usage and maintenance processes:
Online maintenance takes 3 days to complete
Approximately five mailboxes are deleted during an average month
Content indexing will not be performed
Offline maintenance will be performed on a separate LUN
Which approximate LUN size will satisfy the listed requirements and still allow for 20% yearly growth?
A.145 GB
B.175 GB
C.355 GB
D.455 GB
Correct Answers: B

4: Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is complaining that SAN Copy sessions from CLARiiON-A to CLARiiON-B take substantially longer than from those to CLARiiON-C. All hosts have 4 Gb/s HBAs. All Cisco equipment is base hardware configurations.
Which component is causing the issue?
A.9020s
B.9216
C.HBAs
D.Hosts
Correct Answers: B

5: A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer’s site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Correct Answers: C

6: A customer has set up a disaster recovery site 50 miles (81 km) away from their production site. The customer is using MirrorView/S over IP with the Write Intent Log enabled. In addition, they have a dedicated 45 Mb/s line with a latency of 2 ms. During the testing of the automated solution for disaster recovery, an administrator accidentally disables the Write Intent Log. What is the likely outcome of this error if a secondary image becomes fractured?
A.The fracture log will continue to maintain a log of changed blocks.
B.The fracture log will continue to persistently maintain a log of changed blocks.
C.The Write Intent Log will flush all records of changes.
D.The Write Intent Log will hold change records up to the point where it was disabled.
Correct Answers: A

7: Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what happened between 05:21 A.M. and 06:56 A.M.?
A.CLARiiON back-end port was disconnected
B.CLARiiON front-end port was disconnected
C.MirrorView connection failed
D.SAN Copy connection failed
Correct Answers: C

8: A customer has two 50 GB MirrorView/S mirrored LUNs between two CX3-40s without a Write Intent Log. LUN1 is on SP A and LUN2 is on SP B. The two CX3-40s are connected via dedicated Fibre Channel links.
During the nightly maintenance window, the connection between SP A on the local array and SP A on the remote array is lost for 2 minutes. SP B is unaffected. When the customer logs in the next morning, they notice that LUN1 has a status of “attention” and is still fractured.
What caused this behavior?
A.Auto recovery is not possible on the CLARiiON
B.Missing Write Intent Log
C.Recovery policy is set to Manual
D.SP A set the affected front-end FC port administratively down
Correct Answers: C

9: A customer has a 300 GB application LUN on which they would like to take a snapshot. The LUN will later be presented to a backup host for testing. The production LUN stays idle during the backup test. The testing process performed by the backup host is write intensive and will change all the data on the LUN during the test period. What is the minimum required Reserved LUN Pool size?
A.220 GB
B.420 GB
C.620 GB
D.820 GB
Correct Answers: B

10: A customer has an SQL database that initiates a clone for reporting nstance by accounting  The clone is mounted read-only on an alternate host. The production LUN is RAID 1/0 and is 750 GB in size.
The SP event logs indicate that the clone LUN was trespassed during the synchronization. What is the status of the clone?
A.Peer SP continues the operation but the clone is corrupt
B.Peer SP fractures the clone and will need manual resynchronization
C.Peer SP halts the operation and the clone is now corrupted
D.Peer SP will continue the synchronization and the clone remains usable
Correct Answers: D

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