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QUESTION 1
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

A.    Incident and financial management
B.    Change and release and deployment management
C.    Incident and event management
D.    Knowledge and service level management

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

A.    Change proposal
B.    Change policy
C.    Service request
D.    Risk register

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
(1) Local service desk
(2) Virtual service desk
(3) IT help desk
(4) Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
(1) To automatically detect service-affecting events
(2) To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
(3) To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

A.    1 and 2 only
B.    2 and 3 only
C.    1 and 3 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A.    Technical management
B.    Emergency change advisory board
C.    Urgent change board
D.    Urgent change authority

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

A.    To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B.    To provide training and certification in project management
C.    To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D.    To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
(1) Those planned to be delivered
(2) Those being delivered
(3) Those that have been withdrawn from service

A.    1 and 3 only
B.    All of the above
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 3 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The BEST description of an incident is:

A.    An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.    An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C.    Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.    Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

A.    Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B.    Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C.    Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D.    What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
When can a known error record be raised?
(1) At any time it would be useful to do so
(2) After a workaround has been found

A.    2 only
B.    1 only
C.    Neither of the above
D.    Both of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

A.    The change authorization board
B.    The change advisory board
C.    The change implementer
D.    The change manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A.    Continual service improvement
B.    Change management
C.    Service level management
D.    Availability management

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A.    The value of a service
B.    Governance
C.    Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D.    Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

A.    Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B.    Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C.    Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D.    Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A.    Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B.    Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C.    Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D.    Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
What can you do with the DBMS_LOB package?

A.    Use the DBMS_LOB.WRITE procedure to write data to a BFILE.
B.    Use the DBMS_LOB.BFILENAME function to locate an external BFILE.
C.    Use the DBMS_LOB.FILEEXISTS function to find the location of a BFILE.
D.    Use the DBMS_LOB.FILECLOSE procedure to close the file being accessed.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Examine this procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE ADD_PLAYER (V_ID IN NUMBER, V_LAST_NAME VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER (ID,LAST_NAME) VALUES (V_ID, V_LAST_NAME);
COMMIT;
END;
This procedure must invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure and pass a parameter. Which statement, when added to the above procedure, will successfully invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure?

A.    EXECUTE UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
B.    UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
C.    RUN UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
D.    START UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three describe a stored procedure? (Choose three.)

A.    A stored procedure is typically written in SQL.
B.    By default, a stored procedure executes with the privileges of its owner.
C.    A stored procedure has three parts: the specification, the body, and the exception handler part .
D.    A stored procedure is stored in the database and can be shared by a number of programs.
E.    A stored procedure offers some advantages over a standalone SQL statement, such as programmable functionality and compiled code.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
Examine this procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID in NUMBER, V_CITY in VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ‘AUSTIN’, V_NAME in VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO TEAM (id, city, name) VALUES (v_id, v_city, v_name);
COMMIT;
END;
Which two statements will successfully invoke this procedure in SQL*Plus? (Choose two.)

A.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM;
B.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3, V_NAME=>’LONGHORNS’, V_CITY=>’AUSTIN’);
C.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3,’AUSTIN’,’LONGHORNS’);
D.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID := 3, V_NAME := ‘LONGHORNS’, V_CITY := ‘AUSTIN’);
E.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (3,’LONGHORNS’);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
You need to create a DML trigger. Which five pieces need to be identified? (Choose five.)

A.    table
B.    DML event
C.    trigger body
D.    package body
E.    package name
F.    trigger name
G.    system event
H.    trigger timing

Answer: ABCFH

QUESTION 6
This statement fails when executed: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER CALC_TEAM_AVG AFTER INSERT ON PLAYER BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER_BAT_STAT (PLAYER_ID, SEASON_YEAR,AT_BATS,HITS) VALUES (:NEW.ID, 1997, 0,0); END; To which type must you convert the trigger to correct the error?

A.    row
B.    statement
C.    ORACLE FORM trigger
D.    before

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The add_player , upd_player_stat , and upd_pitcher_stat procedures are grouped together in a package. A variable must be shared among only these procedures. Where should you declare this variable?

A.    in the package body
B.    in a database trigger
C.    in the package specification
D.    in each procedure’s DECLARE section, using the exact same name in each

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Examine this package:
  clip_image001[12]
Which statement is true?

A.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE always remains 0.00 in a session.
B.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 each time the package is invoked in a session.
C.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 1.00 each time the procedure DISPLAY_PRICE is invoked.
D.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 when the package is invoked for the first time in a session.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Examine this code:
 clip_image001[14]
Which statement is true?

A.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:06am for Smith.
B.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:06am for Jones.
C.    g_comm has a value of 20 at 9:06am for both Jones and Smith.
D.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:03am for both Jones and Smith.
E.    g_comm has a value of 10 at 9:06am for both Jones and Smith.
F.    g_comm has a value of 10 at 9:03 for both Jones and Smith.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Examine this code:
 clip_image001[16]
Which statement removes the function?

A.    DROP gen_email_name;
B.    REMOVE gen_email_name;
C.    DELETE gen_email_name;
D.    TRUNCATE gen_email_name;
E.    DROP FUNCTION gen_email_name;
F.    ALTER FUNCTION gen_email_name REMOVE;

Answer: E
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QUESTION 1
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPE VALUE
————————– ——————————- —————————
undo_management string AUTO
undo_retentioninteger 12 00
undo_tablespace string UNDOTBS1
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?

A.    Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B.    Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of space in the undo tablespace.
C.    You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D.    An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to ensure the following:
1. The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.
2. Data read per session must be limited for the user.
3. The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off automatically.
How would you accomplish this?

A.    by granting a secure application role to the user
B.    by implementing Database Resource Manager
C.    by using Oracle Label Security options
D.    by assigning a profile to the user

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT’s password is TIGER. The service mane "HQ" is used to connect to the remote HQ database. Which command would you execute to create the database link?

A.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING ‘HQ’;
B.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CXJRRENT_USER USING HQ’ S
C.    CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
D.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A.    The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B.    The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C.    The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D.    The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following specifications:
– Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.
– The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
– The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.
Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A.    a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation
B.    a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C.    a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D.    a default database configuration

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database?

A.    An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B.    An extent can span multiple segments,
C.    Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D.    It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E.    A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database structures?

A.    A segment cannot span data files.
B.    A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C.    An extent cannot span data files.
D.    The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

A.    It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B.    It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C.    It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D.    It writes when a user commits a transaction.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes. Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?

A.    connecting by using an external naming method
B.    connecting by using the easy connect method
C.    creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming service"
D.    connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E.    connecting by using a directory naming method

Answer: CE

QUESTION 10
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table?

A.    partitioning the table
B.    creating an invisible index
C.    updating the table by using an update statement
D.    creating a public synonym
E.    creating a view

Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about a job chain?

A.    It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B.    It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C.    It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D.    It cannot have more than one dependency.
E.    It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12
The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management (ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it. Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?

A.    Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B.    Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C.    Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D.    Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user to the new tablespace
E.    Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value

Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which three factors influence the optimizer’s choice of an execution plan?

A.    the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B.    operating system (OS) statistics
C.    cardinality estimates
D.    object statistics in the data dictionary
E.    fixed baselines

Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.
SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length,
Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits, cpu_wait_time
FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAMEACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS
CPU_WAIT_TIME
———————————– ——————– ——————– ——————— —————-
OLTP__ORDER__ENTRY1029690 467
OTHES__GROUPS 0 059823664089
60425
SYS_GROUP 1 02420704 914
19540
DS.S_QUERIES4245946603004
55700
Which two statements are true?

A.    An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B.    An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C.    The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.
D.    The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E.    A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 15
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A.    The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B.    All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C.    The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D.    The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:
1) You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?

A.    DATE
B.    NUMBER
C.    TIMESTAMP
D.    INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E.    INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?

A.    Displaying a date in a nondefault format
B.    Finding the number of characters in an expression
C.    Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string
D.    Combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the employees table:
 clip_image002[8]
You want to display all the employee names and their corresponding manager names.
Evaluate the following query:
 
Which join option can be used in the blank in the above query to get the required output?

A.    INNER JOIN
B.    FULL OUTER JOIN
C.    LEFT OUTER JOIN
D.    RIGHT OUTER JOIN

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
YOU need to display the date ll-oct-2007 in words as `Eleventh of October, Two Thousand Seven’.
Which SQL statement would give the required result?
 clip_image002[10]

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Examine the data in the ORD_ITEMS table:
 clip_image001[6]
Evaluate the following query:
 clip_image001[8]
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?

A.    It gives an error because the having clause should be specified after the group by clause.
B.    It gives an error because all the aggregate functions used in the having clause must be specified
in the select list.
C.    It displays the item nos with their average quantity where the average quantity is more than double
the minimum quantity of that item in the table.
D.    It displays the item nos with their average quantity where the average quantity is more than double
the overall minimum quantity of all the items in the table.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding subqueries?

A.    A subquery can retrieve zero or more rows.
B.    Only two subqueries can be placed at one level.
C.    A subquery can be used only in SQL query statements.
D.    A subquery can appear on either side of a comparison operator.
E.    There is no limit on the number of subquery levels in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
Using a Subquery to Solve a Problem
Suppose you want to write a query to find out who earns a salary greater than Abel’s salary.
To solve this problem, you need two queries: one to find how much Abel earns, and a second query to find who earns more than that amount. You can solve this problem by combining the two queries, placing one query inside the other query. The inner query (or subquery) returns a value that is used by the outer query (or main query).
Using a subquery is equivalent to performing two sequential queries and using the result of the first query as the search value in the second query.
Subquery Syntax
A subquery is a SELECT statement that is embedded in the clause of another SELECT statement. You can build powerful statements out of simple ones by using subqueries. They can be very useful when you need to select rows from a table with a condition that depends on the data in the table itself.
You can place the subquery in a number of SQL clauses, including the following:
WHERE clause
HAVING clause
FROM clause
In the syntax:
operator includes a comparison condition such as >, =, or IN Note: Comparison conditions fall into two classes: single-row operators (>, =, >=, <, <>, <=) and multiple-row operators (IN, ANY, ALL, EXISTS). The subquery is often referred to as a nested SELECT, sub-SELECT, or inner SELECT statement. The subquery generally executes first, and its output is used to complete the query condition for the main (or outer) query.
Guidelines for Using Subqueries
Enclose subqueries in parentheses. Place subqueries on the right side of the comparison condition for readability. (However, the subquery can appear on either side of the comparison operator.) Use single-row operators with single-row subqueries and multiple- row operators with multiple-row subqueries.
Subqueries can be nested to an unlimited depth in a FROM clause but to "only" 255 levels in a WHERE clause. They can be used in the SELECT list and in the FROM, WHERE, and HAVING clauses of a query.

QUESTION 7
Examine the structure of the products table:
 clip_image001[10]
You want to display the names of the products that have the highest total value for UNIT_PRICE * QTY_IN_HAND.
Which SQL statement gives the required output?
 clip_image002[12]

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle database significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?

A.    Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B.    Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C.    Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic
Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D.    Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E.    Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.

Answer: C
Explanation:
*In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a performance problem.
*Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference:Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

QUESTION 2
You plan to use the In Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.
Which three storage options support the use of HCC?

A.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.
B.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNS on any Storage Area Network array
C.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero padded NFS-mounted files
D.    Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.
E.    Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
F.    Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
G.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays

Answer: AEG
Explanation:
HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage ?Exadata(A), Pillar Axiom(G)or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA).
Note:
*Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to supportPillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above
*Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, betterperformance than traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.
QUESTION 3
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about performance degradation.
How does real-time Automatic database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and provide solutions?

A.    It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B.    It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C.    It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D.    It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Note:
*The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases (PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
*The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to an Oracle "instance" (an instance is your database programs and RAM). *The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control information for a single process.

QUESTION 4
The tnsnames.ora file has an entry for the service alias ORCL as follows:
  clip_image002[4]
The TNS ping command executes successfully when tested with ORCL; however, from the same OS user session, you are not able to connect to the database instance with the following command:
SQL > CONNECT scott/tiger@orcl
What could be the reason for this?

A.    The listener is not running on the database node.
B.    The TNS_ADMIN environment variable is set to the wrong value.
C.    The orcl.oracle.com database service is not registered with the listener.
D.    The DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to the wrong value in the sqlnet.ora file.
E.    The listener is running on a different port.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Service registration enables the listener to determine whether a database service and its service handlers are available. A service handler is a dedicated server process or dispatcher that acts as a connection point to a database. During registration, the LREG process provides the listener with the instance name, database service names, and the type and addresses of service handlers. This information enables the listener to start a service handler when a client request arrives.

QUESTION 5
Examine the following steps of privilege analysis for checking and revoking excessive, unused privileges granted to users:
1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.
2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.
3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.
4. Revoke the unused privileges.
5. Compare the used and unused privileges’ lists.
6. Stop analyzing the data.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A.    1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4
B.    1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 4
C.    1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4
D.    1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4
E.    1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 4

Answer: B
Explanation:
1.Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.
3.Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.
6.Stop analyzing the data.
2.Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.
5.Compare the used and unused privileges’ lists.
4.Revoke the unused privileges.

QUESTION 6
You database is running an ARCHIVELOG mode.
The following parameter are set in your database instance:
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT = arch+%t_%r.arc
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 = `LOCATION = /disk1/archive’
DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE = 50G
DB_RECOVERY_FILE = `/u01/oradata’
Which statement is true about the archived redo log files?

A.    They are created only in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter.
B.    They are created only in the Fast Recovery Area.
C.    They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the
default location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/arch.
D.    They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and the location
specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can choose to archive redo logs to a single destination or to multiple destinations.
Destinations can be local–within the local file system or an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM) disk group–or remote (on a standby database). When you archive to multiple destinations, a copy of each filled redo log file is written to each destination. These redundant copies help ensure that archived logs are always available in the event of a failure at one of the destinations. To archive to only a single destination, specify that destination using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DESTandLOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DESTinitialization parameters. ARCHIVE_DEST initialization parameter. To archive to multiple destinations, you can choose to archive to two or more locations using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n initialization parameters, or to archive only to a primary and secondary destination using the LOG_ ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters.

QUESTION 7
Your multitenant container database (CDB) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You connect to the CDB RMAN. Examine the following command and its output:
 clip_image002[6]
You execute the following command:
RMAN > BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;
Which data files will be backed up?

A.    Data files that belong to only the root container
B.    Data files that belong to the root container and all the pluggable databases (PDBs)
C.    Data files that belong to only the root container and PDB$SEED
D.    Data files that belong to the root container and all the PDBs excluding PDB$SEED

Answer: B
Explanation:
Backing Up a Whole CDB
Backing up a whole CDB is similar to backing up a non-CDB. When you back up a whole CDB, RMAN backs up the root, all the PDBs, and the archived redo logs. You can then recover either the whole CDB, the root only, or one or more PDBs from the CDB backup.
Note:
*You can back up and recover a whole CDB, the root only, or one or more PDBs.
*Backing Up Archived Redo Logs with RMAN
Archived redo logs are the key to successful media recovery. Back them up regularly. You can back up logs with BACKUP ARCHIVELOG, or back up logs while backing up datafiles and control files by specifying BACKUP … PLUS ARCHIVELOG.

QUESTION 8
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage management (ASM). The files are stored in the DATA disk group. You execute the following command:
SQL > ALTER DISKGROUP data ADD ALIAS `+data/prod/myfile.dbf’ FOR `+data.231.45678′;
What is the result?
A.    The file `+data.231.54769′ is physically relocated to `+data/prod’ and renamed as `myfile.dbf’.
B.    The file `+data.231.54769′ is renamed as `myfile.dbf’, and copied to `+data/prod’.
C.    The file `+data.231.54769′ remains in the same location andasynonym’myfile.dbf’ is created.
D.    The file `myfile.dbf’ is created in `+data/prod’ and the reference to `+data.231.54769′ in the data
dictionary removed.

Answer: C
Explanation:
ADD ALIAS
Use this clause to create an alias name for an Oracle ASM filename. The alias_name consists of the full directory path and the alias itself.

QUESTION 9
Which three functions are performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor?

A.    Building and implementing SQL profiles
B.    Recommending the optimization of materialized views
C.    Checking query objects for missing and stale statistics
D.    Recommending bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes
E.    Recommending the restructuring of SQL queries that are using bad plans

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
The SQL Tuning Advisor takes one or more SQL statements as an input and invokes the Automatic Tuning Optimizer to perform SQL tuning on the statements. The output of the SQL Tuning Advisor is in the form of an advice or recommendations, along with a rationale for eachrecommendation and its expected benefit. The recommendation relates to collection of statistics on objects(C), creation of new indexes, restructuring of the SQL statement(E), or creation of a SQL profile(A). You can choose to accept the recommendation to complete the tuning of the SQL statements.

QUESTION 10
Examine the following command:
ALTER SYSTEM SET enable_ddl_logging=FALSE;
Which statement is true?

A.    None of the data definition language (DDL) statements are logged in the trace file.
B.    Only DDL commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert log file.
C.    A new log.xml file that contains the DDL statements is created, and the DDL command details are
removed from the alert log file.
D.    Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new database files are logged.

Answer: A
Explanation:
ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING enables or disables the writing of a subset of data definition language (DDL) statements to a DDL alert log.
The DDL log is a file that has the same format and basic behavior as the alert log, but it only contains the DDL statements issued by the database. The DDL log is created only for the RDBMS component and only if the ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING initialization parameter is set to true. When this parameter is set to false, DDL statements are not included in any log.

QUESTION 11
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains three pluggable database (PDBs). You find that the control file is damaged. You plan to use RMAN to recover the control file. There are no startup triggers associated with the PDBs.
Which three steps should you perform to recover the control file and make the database fully operational?

A.    Mount the container database (CDB) and restore the control file from the control file auto backup.
B.    Recover and open the CDB in NORMAL mode.
C.    Mount the CDB and then recover and open the database, with the RESETLOGS option.
D.    Open all the pluggable databases.
E.    Recover each pluggable database.
F.    Start the database instance in the nomount stage and restore the control file from control file auto backup.

Answer: CDF
Explanation:
Step 1: F
Step 2: D
Step 3: C: If all copies of the current control file are lost or damaged, then you must restore and mount a backup control file. You must then run the RECOVERcommand, even if no data files have been restored, and open the database with the RESETLOGS option.
Note:
*RMAN and Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control (Cloud Control) provide full support for backup and recovery in a multitenant environment. You can back up and recover a whole multitenant container database (CDB), root only, or one or more pluggable databases (PDBs).

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QUESTION 1
What is a characteristic feature of My Documentum for Desktop?

A.    Integration with Windows File System Explorer
B.    Recycle bin
C.    A Documentum menu bar item
D.    A customization of Webtop

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which Webtop feature enables quick access to favorite documents from the browser tree menu?

A.    Properties dialog
B.    Favorites
C.    Subscription
D.    Notification

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What happens to a Microsoft Word document when a user imports it into the repository?

A.    A copy of the document is made and imported into the repository file store.
B.    Nothing. Documentum only stores metadata along with a pointer to the document in the file system.
C.    A copy of the document is made and imported along with metadata into the repository.
D.    The original document is moved from the file system and imported into the repository file store.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In a Documentum environment, how is it apparent to a user that Microsoft Office integrations are enabled on their machine?

A.    The user is restricted to using only Microsoft Office formats when creating new documents.
B.    A Microsoft logo appears in the upper-right corner of the Webtop home page.
C.    A Documentum menu option displays when the user opens Microsoft Word.
D.    A Microsoft Office menu option displays when the user logs in to Webtop.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A Webtop user checks out a Microsoft Word document from the repository and edits it.
How will the user be prompted upon checkin of the edited document?

A.    Checkin as the same, next minor, or next major version.
B.    Checkin as the same version
C.    Checkin as either the next major or minor version
D.    Rename the new version

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
When a document object is checked in as the same version, which statement is true?

A.    All renditions are orphaned from all versions.
B.    All renditions are orphaned from the current version.
C.    No renditions are orphaned from the current version.
D.    All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of same version checkin.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
If a user has completed the checkout operation on a document object, which statement is true?

A.    Only this user or a superuser can cancel the checkout operation.
B.    Only this user can cancel the checkout operation.
C.    Only this user or a superuser cancheckin the document object.
D.    Only the superuser can cancel the checkout operation.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When a document with renditions is versioned, which statement is true?

A.    New renditions must be generated automatically.
B.    All renditions from previous version are carried over by default.
C.    All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of new version checkin.
D.    All renditions are orphaned from all versions.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true for checking in multiple document objects to a repository?

A.    The client application determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
B.    The Content Server determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
C.    The data dictionary can be configured to allow more than one document object with the same name in the same folder.
D.    The Content Server architecture does not allow document objects with the same name in the same folder.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true for a user who has Browse and Extended Delete and does not belong to any roles listed on the permission set?

A.    The user can view the document object’s content and delete the document object.
B.    The user can move or delete the document object but is unable to view the properties.
C.    The user can move or delete the document object and view its content.
D.    The user can view the properties but is unable to view the document object’s content.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true regarding versioning when a user edits version 1.1 of a document object, which is an older version than what is currently available?

A.    A new version of the document object is created, and "1.0" is appended to the edited version.
B.    A new version of the document object is created, and "2.0" is appended to the edited version.
C.    The document object is saved as version 1.1.
D.    The document object is saved as version 2.0.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A client application applies the "In Review" version label to a document object.
What is the expected behavior the next time a user performs a checkin on that document?

A.    The "In Review" version label can be applied to the new version of the document and the previous version.
B.    The "In Review" version label can be applied to the new version of the document and is removed from the previous version.
C.    The "In Review" version label cannot be applied to the new version of the document and remains with the previous version.
D.    The "In Review" version label can be applied to the new version of the document, while the previous version with the same label will be deleted by the Content Server.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A user has Edit (Write) permission on a document object that is contained in FolderA. The same user has Edit (Write) permission on FolderA and FolderB.
The user wants to move the document object from FolderA to FolderB.
Which statement is true?

A.    The user can move the document from FolderA to FolderB without acquiring additional permissions.
B.    The user must also have Delete permission on the document object and FolderA to move the document.
C.    The user must have Delete permission on the document object and both folders to move the document.
D.    The user must have Delete permission on both folders to move the document.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
When renditions are managed along with the document object’s primary rendition, which statement is true?

A.    Renditions can be of any format but multiple renditions with the same format cannot exist.
B.    Renditions can be of any format but multiple renditions with the same format cannot exist within the same version.
C.    Renditions can be of any format.
D.    Renditions can be of any format that is not the same format as the primary rendition.

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which statement is true about the ability to drag and drop objects from within Webtop to the user’s local desktop?

A.    The feature works when multiple files are selected.
B.    The feature works only when the browser’s security level is set to Medium.
C.    The feature is enabled for all users by default.
D.    The feature is only available through the clipboard.

Answer: A

QUESTION 16
What can be subscribed to in the repository?

A.    A permission set
B.    An object type
C.    A group
D.    A folder

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Where in Webtop can the default application for viewing objects be set?

A.    Preferences
B.    Tools menu
C.    Properties
D.    Advanced Search

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which type of authentication server could an engineer configure in order to provide the use of RSA token authentication as a permitted authentication method to access a AAA Virtual Server?

A.    LDAP
B.    SAML
C.    RADIUS
D.    Negotiate

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network. Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?

A.    Network -> IPs
B.    System -> Auditing
C.    AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D.    Protection Features -> Filter

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address. Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access?

A.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B.    set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C.    set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Company policy states that all passwords should travel the network in encrypted packets except SNMP. Which command should the network engineer execute to comply with this policy?

A.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -ssh disabled -telnet disabled -gui enabled
B.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -telnet disabled -gui secureonly -ftp disabled
C.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -restrictaccess enabled
D.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -ssh enabled -restrictaccess enabled

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A Netscaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the Netscaler device. How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the Netscaler?

A.    Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B.    Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C.    Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D.    Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?

A.    Add a Simple ACL.
B.    Disable USNIP Mode.
C.    Create an Extended ACL.
D.    Add a Host Route to the virtual server.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site. Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?

A.    Rule
B.    Source IP
C.    Cookie Insert
D.    Custom Server ID

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Scenario: Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively. Which load balancing method should the engineer select?

A.    Least packet
B.    Round Robin
C.    Least bandwidth
D.    Least connection

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A network engineer wants to configure a NetScaler for load balancing Voice over IP traffic (VoIP).
Which hash method is the best fit for VoIP traffic?

A.    Call ID
B.    Source IP
C.    Destination IP
D.    Domain name

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A company has three HTTP servers that are load balanced using NetScaler. When users connect to the HTTP application they often receive inconsistent data or are advised that they need to log on again. Which step should the engineer take to correct this?

A.    Remove Down State Flush.
B.    Change the idle timeout value for the service.
C.    Configure persistence with appropriate timeouts.
D.    Change the global TCP Client Idle Time-Out value.

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place. Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A.    Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B.    Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C.    Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D.    Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Scenario: An application that uses HTTP for connections and other protocols for different types of content has been deployed. Load balancing virtual servers have been created for each protocol and the engineer now needs to ensure that once a load balancing decision has occurred, further requests for different content are served from the same server. How could the engineer achieve this?

A.    Create a persistency group.
B.    Set the Spillover method to DYNAMICCONNECTION.
C.    Add a new virtual server for each protocol that is not directly addressable.
D.    Set each virtual server to use Source IP Hash as the load balancing method.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: Nether Tech’s corporate policy requires that passwords are NOT requested for XenApp passthrough connections, except for those that pertain to members of the Nursing Users group. Nurses connect to XenApp servers hosting applications in the Nurses Worker Group. Click the Exhibit button to view a list of the policies configured in the environment.
 clip_image001
An engineer needs to prioritize the three policies so that only members of the Nurses group are prompted for passwords when they connect to their XenApp resources. What is the correct order of prioritization for the policies from lowest to highest?

A.    Unfiltered, Nurses, Corporate Users
B.    Corporate Users, Nurses, Unfiltered
C.    Unfiltered, Corporate Users, Nurses
D.    Nurses, Unfiltered, Corporate Users

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Scenario: As part of the designs for the XenDesktop site and XenApp farm at Nether Tech, a Citrix Engineer is instructed to ensure that all auto-created printers use the Citrix Universal Printer Driver. As the deployment phase begins, a home user is experiencing issues printing to a locally attached printer. When print jobs are sent to the printer, the pages print, but only with strange characters on them. To resolve the user’s printing issue, the engineer should create a Citrix User policy and __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)

A.    set a session printer to the user’s default printer
B.    set the client printer names to legacy printer names
C.    set the client printer names to standard printer names
D.    set PCL5c driver at the top of the Universal driver preference list

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: Nether Tech’s head office, which has over 400 employees, is located in the city center of Amsterdam, where the majority of the employees rely on public transport to travel to and from the office. During the winter, a significant amount of disruption is caused when staff cannot get into the office. Nether Tech wants to ensure that staff can connect to their corporate desktops from their home computers or corporate issued laptops during times of disruption. Nether Tech has a XenApp farm already. This farm can be accessed externally and all staff members have access. Nether Tech can only spare two virtual servers to facilitate a solution that will allow employees to access their own corporate physical desktops. Any solution must allow employees to work directly with their own corporate physical desktops. Which solution will best suit Nether Tech’s needs?

A.    Deploy two XenApp servers to the existing farm and publish the RDP client.
B.    Deploy two XenApp servers to the existing farm and publish a hosted desktop for all users.
C.    Deploy two desktop controllers to the existing farm and use XenDesktop to publish each user’s desktop.
D.    Deploy two desktop controllers servers to the existing farm and use XenApp to publish each user’s desktop.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Scenario: An engineer has been instructed to implement a new XenApp farm. The IT Manager at Nether Tech wants idle sessions for server hosted applications to be disconnected after two hours and idle sessions for XenApp server hosted desktops to be disconnected after eight hours. There is a separate domain group policy which disconnects idle sessions after four hours. The XenApp servers hosting the server hosted desktops are in a worker group named Apps. The XenApp servers hosting the server hosted desktop are in a worker group named Desktops. Several Computer policies are configured in the environment. Click the Exhibit button to view the list of configured Computer policies.
 clip_image001[4]
Users are complaining that their idle sessions are disconnected after four hours. What must the engineer do to meet the requirements stated in the environment?

A.    Remove the Domain Group Policy.
B.    Disable Domain Group Policy Inheritance.
C.    Change the Domain Group Policy to 8 hours.
D.    Change the Domain Group Policy to 2 hours.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: In order to complete the rollout of a new XenApp farm, a Citrix Engineer is required to set a policy to allow all client printers to auto-create for the domain group called Accounting Users. Their current unfiltered Citrix policy is configured to only auto-create the client’s default printer. The engineer must also ensure that any changes made will NOT affect other users in the farm. All the XenApp servers are in a single worker group. Which three actions must the engineer take to allow the Accounting Users group to receive all of their printers? (Choose three.)

A.    Increase the policy priority.
B.    Decrease the policy priority.
C.    Assign the policy to the Accounting User group.
D.    Assign the policy to the existing XenApp Worker group.
E.    Create a User policy and set the policy to allow the autocreation of all client printers.
F.    Create a Computer policy and set the policy to allow the autocreation of all client printers.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
Scenario: Nether Tech is delivering Windows 7 virtual desktops to 1000 employees using XenDesktop in a XenServer hosting infrastructure that consists of 16 XenServer hosts. Provisioning Services is used to provide standard OS image streaming to the virtual desktops in standard image mode. The Citrix Engineer in the environment has observed a decrease in overall performance. Which two actions should the engineer take to increase performance? (Choose two.)

A.    Delete snapshots from the XenServer storage repository.
B.    Configure the vDisk write cache mode on the target device.
C.    Configure the vDisk write cache mode on the Provisioning Services server.
D.    Create a hard drive on the XenServer storage repository for each virtual machine.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Scenario: Nether Tech has rolled out Windows Server 2008 XenApp published desktop to 1000 employees as their primary workspace since 2008. Recently the Citrix team has been receiving an increasing number of tickets on slow logons and logoffs and slow XenApp server performance. After further investigation, the Citrix team discovered low available disk space on the system drive of the XenApp servers. The majority of the disk space has been occupied by thousands of temporary Internet files and cookies on the local profile cache as well as in the roaming profile storage. The CIO of Nether Tech made a decision to discard the temporary Internet files and cookies but to keep the rest of the user profile information and reclaim local disk space. To accomplish this goal, the Citrix Engineer is looking to use Citrix Profile Management to replace Windows roaming profile. Which two group policy options in the Citrix profile management administrative template should the Citrix Engineer configure to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    In profile handling, enable "Delete locally cached profiles on logoff".
B.    In file system, configure exclusion list: local settings\temporary internet files.
C.    In Streamed user profiles, configure logon without the download temporary Internet files folder.
D.    In Advanced Settings, configure folder redirection: c:\users\%username%\local settings\temporary internet files.
E.    In file system, configure exclusion list: C:\Documents and Settings\%username%\microsoft\internet explorer\temporary internet files.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer plans to set up a regularly scheduled backup and archive implementation for five critical Windows 2008 Server R2 virtual machines. Each virtual machine must be backed up on a different day at the same time of day and archived to a safe place for extra security. Which two actions must the engineer take to configure the scheduled backup and archive implementation for these five virtual machines? (Choose two.)

A.    Automatically archive to a remote NFS share.
B.    Automatically archive to a remote EXT3 share.
C.    Automatically archive to a local XenServer share.
D.    Create one protection and recovery policy for all five virtual machines.
E.    Create five protection and recovery policies; one for each virtual machine.

Answer: AE

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QUESTION 1
Why is this the best design for the desktops for these user groups?

A.    This design provides the most security by limiting access to the sensitive applications from the virtual desktop only and keeping confidential user data private on each vDisk.
B.    This design is essential to meet the strict security requirements for data and printing while keeping administrative maintenance to a minimum since the user groups are relatively small in number.
C.    This design maintains the security requirements and provides the best user experience by allowing users to write to their own vDisk.
D.    This is the best design for users based in a corporate office where security is a big concern because, when using XenApp, data could be intercepted while traversing the network and print jobs could be misdirected to the wrong printer.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: Users in various corporate and regional offices need access to common office productivity applications and email, in addition to their own job-specific applications. Although WAN congestion is NOT a critical issue at the moment, Healthy Helping Hands’ IT staff would like to keep to a minimum the impact of farm communication to the network. Healthy Helping Hands requires that, whenever possible, users access XenApp servers in the same datacenter where their resources and data are located.
What should the architect do to meet the needs of Healthy Helping Hands while ensuring that network traffic is kept to a minimum?

A.    Create two farms with one zone each.
B.    Create one farm with four zones.
C.    Create four farms with one zone each.
D.    Create one farm with three zones.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
How should the architect achieve failover between farms?

A.    Create two Web Interface sites in each farm with unique URLs and manually update DNS records to redirect users to another Web Interface in the same farm in case of a failure.
B.    Create a custom ICA file for each farm, distribute these files to all users and allow users to manually select the farm they wish to connect to in case of a failure.
C.    Create a central Web Interface site, add both farms to the WebInterface site and allow users to manually select the application to connect to in case of a failure.
D.    Create a zone preference and failover policy that specifies a primary and secondary farm for each user group.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
How should the architect configure zone preference and failover for the XenApp farm?

A.    Create eight policies in the following priority order:
1. New York primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America sites’ subnets;
2. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America sites’ subnets;
3. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe sites’ subnets;
4. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific sites’ subnets;
5. NY primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America user group;
6. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America user group;
7. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe user group;
8. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific user group
B.     Create eight policies in the following priority order:
1. NY primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America user group;
2. New York primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America sites’ subnets;
3. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America user group;
4. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America sites’ subnets;
5. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe user group;
6. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe sites’ subnets;
7. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific user group;
8. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific sites’ subnets.
C.     Create four policies in the following priority order:
1. NY primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America user group;
2. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America user group;
3. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe user group;
4. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific user group.
D.     Create four policies in the following priority order:
1. New York primary, SF secondary applied to Eastern America sites’ subnets;
2. SF primary, NY secondary applied to Western America sites’ subnets;
3. London primary, NY secondary applied to Europe sites’ subnets;
4. Hong Kong primary, SF secondary applied to Asia/Pacific sites’ subnets.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Why is creating two farms the best solution for this environment?

A.    This solution reduces LAN traffic within sites by ensuring that users access a XenApp server closest to their resources.
B.    This solution ensures that network administrators can customize farm settings for each datacenter.
C.    This solution enhances security by creating separate access control boundaries.
D.    This solution enhances efficient use of network bandwidth by reducing zone data collector communication.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Why should the architect apply the subnet policies with a higher priority than the user group policies?

A.    This solution ensures that users will be directed to a XenApp server in the same datacenter as their resources regardless of connection location.
B.    This solution ensures that the users will be directed to the XenApp server with the lightest load regardless of connection location.
C.    This solution ensures that users connecting from the Internet will be directed to the XenApp server closest to their physical location although they may be connecting from unknown subnets.
D.    This solution ensures that the Sales users will be directed to the closest XenApp server to their physical location although they may be connecting fromdifferent regional offices.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Based on the assessment document, which two actions must the architect take regarding Citrix
licensing in order to properly assess the environment?

A.    Restart the IIS Service.
B.    Restart the Citrix Licensing Service.
C.    Add the REPORTLOG keyword to the options file.
D.    Create a file called REPORT.LOG in C:\Program Files\Citrix\MyFiles.
E.    Select a network share to which the local system account has write access.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Scenario: Healthy Helping Hands has created a new pilot XenApp 5 Platinum Edition farm with
applications delivered to 25 pilot users. The pilot farm includes all the applications that were previously published to the HR users and some additional applications to support Manufacturing.
During the pilot week of September 14th, the users of the PositivelyPeople application reporting that the application was responding slowly.
 clip_image002
Fortunately, EdgeSight had been installed and configured in the pilot farm and was recording data during the pilot. Attached in the exhibit is the information gathered from the Transaction Network Delay report from EdgeSight. Which theory effectively explains the data that is presented in the report?

A.    The XenApp server is waiting on another host to respond, most likely the server hosting the
PositivelyPeople database.
B.    The XenApp server is waiting on the network packet queue to clear as evidenced by the 9ms
network latency being reported.
C.    The XenApp server is reaching maximum capacity, and the lack of physical resources on the
XenApp server is causing the response delay.
D.    The Network Delay on 9/19/2009 is probably the source of complaints from the HR Users. An
average network latency of almost 9ms is unacceptable.
Description: C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\Desktop\untitled.JPG

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are updating their environment.
Recertify the HR users have been experiencing intermittent outages in remote access to their application.
Which solution should be included in the project to address this problem?

A.    Issue company laptops to HR users
B.    Replace the existing Secure Gateway server.
C.    Add a second Secure Gateway server to the environment.
D.    Request that HR users upgrade their Internet connections

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: Several users in the HR user group will be traveling to trade conferences this year to meet industry training requirements and stay current on developing trends in the field While working remotely, these users will need to upload presentations and training material distributed during the conferences onto sponsored USB keys.
Based on the analysis document, how can an architect ensure that the current environment allows the HR user group to meet this need?

A.    Edit the HR Users policy to allow client mappings.
B.    Provide a secure FTP site for presentation and training material uploads.
C.    Maintain the current environment since it currently allows users to map their drives.
D.    Move the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server to the DMZ in the environment to allow for
remote connections.

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario: In order to plan for the possibility of a pandemic flu, the HR department for Healthy
Helping Hands has asked an architect to test whether the infrastructure could accommodate 300 key or ‘at risk" workers working from home over a two week period. Based on the information in the assessment document, can the existing infrastructure support such a situation?

A.    No, there are insufficient licenses available to support this requirement.
B.    Yes, sufficient capacity exists to support this temporary requirement; no action is required.
C.    No. two additional servers are required to support the remote workers during this two week
period.
D.    No. the Secure Gatew3y/Web Interface server has insufficient capacity to support this
requirement.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In the future upgrade environment, Healthy Helping Hands wants to provide the IT department with the ability to interact with user session for training and troubleshooting without compromising
security demands. How can an architect meet the needs of the Healthy Helping Hands IT
department?

A.    Enable shadowing in the current environment.
B.    Use Group Policy to enable Microsoft Remote Support.
C.    Purchase license for a third party remote viewing software.
D.    Enable shadowing once the environment is migrated to XenApp 5.

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario: The Healthy Helping Hands infrastructure assessment identified that the Manufacturing
team has access to locked-down terminals in order to complete their work. However, frequent
breakdowns due to unauthorized software installations have caused productivity problems for the
Manufacturing staff. How can an architect reduce the breakdowns as the applications are moved to a virtual environment?

A.    Upgrade the workstations to new computers.
B.    Lock the workstations using local group policies.
C.    Upgrade the workstations to diskless computers.
D.    Deploy the Desktop Appliance Lock on all workstations.

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Based on the CIO’s WAN traffic requirement, users at which two locations would have a single point of failure when attempting to access applications? (Choose two)

A.    Hong Kong Site
B.    Berlin Regional Office
C.    Rome Sates Branch Office
D.    New York Main Data Center

Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
Healthy Helping Hands is going to use Provisioning Services for the virtual desktop.
How should the architect design the Provisioning Services component of the environment?

A.    Six Provisioning Services server, two in San Francisco, two in New York, one in London and one in Hong Kong should be used.
B.    Two Provisioning Services servers, one in San Francisco and one in New York, should be used.
C.    Four Provisioning Services server, two in San Francisco and two in Now York, should be used.
D.    Eight Provisioning Services servers, two each in San Francisco, New York, London and Hong Kong should be used.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 101
Hotspot Questions
You have a folder that you plan to share.
You need to configure security for the shared folder to meet the following requirements:
– Members of a security group named Group1 must be able to modify permissions of files and folders.
– Members of a security group named Group2 must be able to read files and folders only.
– Members of a security group named Group3 must be able to take ownership of files.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
 clip_image001
Answer:
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QUESTION 102
Hotspot Questions
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains three domains named adatum.com, na.adatum.com, and eu.adatum.com. You have a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8 Enterprise. Computer1 is a member of the na.adatum.com domain. You need to ensure that single-label names can be resolved from all three domains. Which setting should you configure? (To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.)
 clip_image001[6]
Answer:
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QUESTION 103
Hotspot Questions
Your company plans to deploy Windows 8 Enterprise to all client computers. Users in the development department and the sales department will each receive a laptop that runs a corporate image of Windows 8 Enterprise. In addition to running the corporate image of Windows 8 Enterprise, the users have the requirements described in the following table.
 clip_image002
You need to recommend the appropriate technology for each department. What should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate technology for each department in the answer area.)
 clip_image001[10]
Answer:
 clip_image001[12]

QUESTION 104
Drag and Drop Questions
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise. Your company has a subscription to Windows Intune. You plan to deploy an application named App1 that is stored on a Web server named Server1. You need to ensure that all of the computers download the source files of App1 from Server1. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate four actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[4]
Answer:
Box 1:
 clip_image001[14]
Box 2:
 clip_image001[16]
Box 3:
 clip_image001[18]
Box 4:
 clip_image001[20]
Explanation:
Note:
Step 1: All software installer types are configured using the Windows Intune Software Publisher.
To start the Windows Intune Software Publisher
1. Open the Windows Intune administrator console.
2. In the workspace shortcuts pane, click the Software icon.
3. Start the Windows Intune Software Publisher in one of the following ways:
In the navigation pane, click Overview , and then click Add Software . In the navigation pane, click Managed Software , and then click Add Software .
Step 2:
Adding Software as an External Link
This section describes how to add a link to a software installation package to Windows Intune using the Windows Intune Software Publisher.
To specify the installer type
1. Open the Windows Intune Software Publisher.
2. On the Software setup page, in Select how this software is made available to devices , se-lect External link .
3. In Specify the URL , type the full path to the installation location in the app store, or the full path to the web app location. The path must be in the format http://www.<address> .
4. Click Next .
Step 3:
The following procedures describe how to upload a Windows Installer (*.exe or *.msi) package to Windows Intune by using the Windows Intune Software Publisher.
To specify the installer type
1. Start the Windows Intune Software Publisher.
2. On the Software setup page, in Select how this software is made available devices , se-lect Software Installer . In Select the software installer file type , select Windows Installer (*.exe, *.msi) .
3. In Specify the location of the software setup files , enter the full path to the location of the .exe or .msi installation files, or clickBrowse to navigate and select to the folder where the setup files are stored. If additional files and subfolders are required for this installation, click Include additional files and subfolders from the same folder .
4. Click Next .
Step 4:
To review the software specifications and upload the software
1. On the Summary page, review the software settings that you specified. You can scroll down as needed to view the complete summary.
2. To change any setting, click the appropriate page in the page navigation pane and then edit the selections on the displayed page.
3. When you have completed all of the software specifications, clickUpload . The Upload page displays the status of the software as it uploads to Windows Intune.
Reference: Adding Software Packages in Windows Intune

QUESTION 105
Hotspot Questions
You have client computers that run Windows 8 Pro. All of the computers are members of an Active Directory domain. The Folder Redirection Policy settings of all domain users are configured as shown in the Folder Redirection exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002[6]
You enable and configure the Configure slow-link mode Group Policy setting that applies to all of the computers as shown in the Slow-link mode exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.

 clip_image001[22]
To answer, complete each statement according to the information presented in the exhibits. Each correct selection is worth one point.
 clip_image001[24]
Answer:
 clip_image001[26]
QUESTION 106
Hotspot Questions
Your company has a main office and a branch office. You have client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise. You are evaluating whether to disable IPv6 on the client computers in the sales, marketing, research, and finance departments. Each user in the sales department has a laptop and frequently accesses the network by using a PPTP VPN connection. Each user in the marketing department has a desktop computer located in the branch office. All of the marketing department computers are configured to use BranchCache. Each user in the research department has a desktop computer located in the main office and uses IPSec to access research servers. Each user in the finance department has a laptop and frequently accesses the network by using an SSTP VPN connection. In the table below, identify which departments require IPv6 and which departments do not require IPv6. Make only one selection in each row. Each correct selection is worth one point.
 clip_image001[28]
Answer:
 clip_image001[30]

QUESTION 107
Hotspot Questions
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The Default Domain Policy contains the AppLocker settings configured as shown in the AppLocker Settings exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002[8]
The Default Domain Policy contains the AppLocker properties configured as shown in the AppLocker Properties exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

 clip_image001[32]
To answer, complete each statement according to the information presented in the exhibit. Each correct selection is worth one point.
 clip_image001[34]

Answer:
 clip_image001[36]

QUESTION 108
You are a systems administrator for your company. The company has employees who work remotely by using a virtual private network (VPN) connection from their computers, which run Windows 8 Pro. These employees use an application to access the company intranet database servers. The company recently decided to distribute the latest version of the application through using a public cloud. Some users report that every time they try to download the application by using Internet Explorer, they receive a warning message that indicates the application could harm their computer. You need to recommend a solution that prevents this warning message from appearing, without compromising the security protection of the computers. What should you do?

A.    Publish the application through a public file transfer protocol (FTP) site.
B.    Digitally sign the application by using a trusted certificate, and then update the default App Package
Deployment policy on all computers.
C.    Change the default Software Restriction Policies on the client computers.
D.    Change the default Applications Control Policies on the client computers.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Note: The app package signature ensures that the package and contents haven’t been modified after they were signed. If the signing certificate validates to a Trusted Root Certification Authorities Certificate, the signature also identifies who signed the package.

QUESTION 109
Hotspot Questions
You install Windows 8 Pro on a new client computer. You sign-in to the computer by using a domain user account. You need to synchronize the Personalize settings between your domain account and a Microsoft account. What should you configure first? (To answer, select the appropriate settings section in the answer area.)
 clip_image002[10]
Answer:
 clip_image002[12]

QUESTION 110
Hotspot Questions
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. All client computers run Windows 8 Enterprise and are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Windows8Computers. The network has Windows Server update Services (WSUS) installed. All of the computers are configured to receive updates from WSUS. The network administrator creates a new computer group named Win8Computers in WSUS.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computers receive all of the updates that are assigned to the WinSComputers computer group. Which Group Policy setting should you configure? (To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.)

 clip_image001[38]
Answer:

clip_image001[40]
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