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QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

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2014 Latest HP HP2-Z30 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before allowing them access to network resources?

A.    802.1X
B.    MIMO
C.    802.1Z
D.    WPA

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?

A.    5120-SI
B.    9 5820
C.    7500
D.    12500

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?

A.    Log Parser
B.    Event Analyzer
C.    Information Center
D.    Event Log

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP MSM access point?

A.    username of “hp” and password of “hp”
B.    username of “msm” and password of “wireless”
C.    username of “admin” and password of “hp”
D.    username of “admin” and password of “admin”

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?

A.    Operator
B.    Administrator
C.    Manager
D.    Maintainer

Answer: D

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2014 Latest HP HP2-Z28 Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
HP Intelligent Management Centers (IMC’s) Intelligent Configuration Center and Access Control List (ACL) Manager align with which FCAPS category?

A.    Performance
B.    Fault
C.    Accounting
D.    Configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to implement a network access control solution to ensure that only devices which meet company policies are allowed to access the network. Which HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC) modules should you recommend?

A.    Branch Intelligent Management System (BIMS) and Service Health Manager
B.    User Access Management (UAM) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
C.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
D.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Intelligent Analysis Reporter

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which switch series supports meshed stacking, a feature that is similar to Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)?

A.    HP 3500 Switch Series
B.    HP 3800 Switch Series
C.    HP 5400 21 Switch Series
D.    HP 5500 HI Switch Series

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://h30507.www3.hp.com/t5/HP-Networking/5-network-stacking-technology-benefits- Intelligent-Resilient/ba-p/122081#.UweFeUKSxHg

QUESTION 4
Which router would you recommend for a large campus that requires the highest performance?

A.    HP MSR930 Series
B.    HP MSR2000 Series
C.    HP HSR6600 Router Series
D.    HP HSR6800 Router Series

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/products/routers/HP_HSR6800_Router_Series/ind ex.aspx

QUESTION 5
A company needs a data center network solution that isolates different departments’ traffic completely to maintain regulatory compliance. It also needs to save space and purchase as few physical switches as possible. Which HP FlexFabric switch technology meets these needs?

A.    HP Multitenant Device Context (MDC)
B.    HP Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)
C.    HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D.    HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx%2Fc03597043.pdf (page 73)
 

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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 010-151 Demo Free Download!

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Version: DEMO
 
QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?

A.    MDS 9513
B.    MDS 9509
C.    MDS 9506
D.    MDS 9250i

Answer: A

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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 350-030 Dump Free Download(211-220)!

QUESTION 211
You are deploying a new Cisco Unified Communications solution that utilizes a centralized call processing model. Which method of CAC is recommended for this type of solution?

A.    RSVP-based
B.    gatekeeper-based
C.    CUBE-based
D.    locations-based

Answer: D

QUESTION 212
Which Cisco IOS CLI command can be used to identify the high jitter level of an RTP stream on a Cisco IOS voice gateway?

A.    show call active voice brief
B.    show voip rtp connections
C.    show voice dsp detailed
D.    show voice call summary
E.    show policy-map interface

Answer: A

QUESTION 213
Which two analog voice interfaces support ground-start? (Choose two.)

A.    FXS
B.    E&MTypel
C.    E&MTypell
D.    E&MTypelV
E.    FXO

Answer: AE

QUESTION 214
When using DNS, what does the TC bit indicate?

A.    The total response size was greater than 512 bytes, and the data that does not fit was required
B.    The DNS response was less than 512 bytes, and the data required padding.
C.    The packet was greater than 1024 bytes, and the data was possibly damaged.
D.    The pointer to the RRset that will provide the correct data due to possible damage

Answer: A

QUESTION 215
Which Cisco Unified Presence service parameter must be modified from the default value in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional?

A.    server name
B.    server IP address
C.    DNS domain
D.    SIP proxy domain
E.    enable presence

Answer: D
QUESTION 216
A CallManager Group can provide which two features to your call processing system? (Choose 2)

A.    Support for SRST in remote offices
B.    Enables you to distribute the control of devices across multiple Cisco CallManagers
C.    Enables you to distribute voice mail support across multiple Unity servers
D.    Support for redundancy by enabling you to designate a primary and backup Cisco CallManagers
for each group
E.    Support for control of IPMA across primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group

Answer: BD

QUESTION 217
Which two features do not override the DND setting on an SCCP-controlled IP phone on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)

A.    park reversion for remotely parked calls
B.    MLPP
C.    callback–terminating side
D.    hold reversion
E.    intercom
F.    park reversion for locally parked calls

Answer: AC

QUESTION 218
Which 2 are NOT functions performed by Cisco Media Streaming App Service?

A.    Provides SCCP stack for 4 software devices: ANN, CFB, MOH, and MTP
B.    Supports DB change notification processing
C.    Converts new MOH source files to separate WAV files for MOH codecs
D.    Provides SDI trace, event logs, and Perfmon counters
E.    Adjusts volume levels of MOH source files
F.    Provides audio data from WAV files: ANN, MOH

Answer: CE

QUESTION 219
A company has a headquarters with a centralized CallManager and 5 remote offices. All the remote offices have extensions in the range of 1000-1150. To allow inter-office calls each office has been assigned a 3 digit site code. To call between sites, users will dial an access code followed by the 3 digit site code and the extension. Which of the following describes how these inter-office access codes should be configured?

A.    A translation pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones.
The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned a Calling Search Space
that includes only the phones located in the office.
B.    A translation pattern is created for each office and is placed in a partition available to the phones at
that office. The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned to Calling
Search Space that includes all local phones.
C.    A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The route
pattern strips the access code and the site code and routes the call to the remote office’s gateway.
D.    A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to phones at that office.
The route pattern strips the access code and site code and routes the call to the remote office’s gateway.

Answer: B

QUESTION 220
Which type of media resources would be required for a single site call processing model?

A.    MTP
B.    Locations
C.    Regions
D.    Transcoders

Answer: A

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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 350-030 Dump Free Download(201-210)!

QUESTION 201
Which two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system components do not support integration redundancy? (Choose two.)

A.    CTI ports
B.    AXL service
C.    Cisco Unified CM Telephony trigger
D.    CSQ
E.    dialog groups
F.    HTTP trigger

Answer: DF

QUESTION 202
Which of these best describes the “Incoming ACL” configuration on Cisco Unified Presence?

A.    permits incoming packets to Cisco Unified Presence
B.    bypasses digest authentication
C.    allows instant messages
D.    allows incoming certificates to Cisco Unified Presence
E.    filters incoming presence status requests

Answer: B

QUESTION 203
Calculate the percentage of bandwidth that is saved for one G.729 call crossing a Frame Relay link when ip rtp header-compression is enabled. The Frame Relay overhead is 4 bytes. The G.729 codec bit rate is 8 kb/s. Assume UDP checksum is enabled.

A.    approximately 55 percent
B.    approximately 85 percent
C.    approximately 20 percent
D.    approximately 65 percent
E.    approximately 60 percent

Answer: D

QUESTION 204
Which E1 time slots are used to carry encoded voice only?

A.    timeslots to 31
B.    timeslots to 15, and 17 to 31
C.    time slots 1 to 32
D.    time slots 1 to 15, and 17 to 31
E.    timeslots to 15, and 17 to 32

Answer: D

QUESTION 205
These three-class policies use MQC tools whenever possible. Which of the policies will effectively provision for IP telephony traffic being carried over a 768 kb/s Frame Relay PVC using Cisco recommended best-practice parameters?

A.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
compress header ip rtp
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960
B.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 768000 7680 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
C.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
compress header ip rtp
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
fragment frfl2 960
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci
102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
D.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 70
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
ip rtp header-compression
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960
E.    policy-map WAN-EDGE
class VOICE
priority percent 33
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
compress header ip rtp
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 640

Answer: E

QUESTION 206
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents zero or more occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard?

A.    !
B.    +
C.    *
D.    .
E.    ?

Answer: E

QUESTION 207
How is fax pass-through traffic treated over IP WAN connections that use the G.729 codec?

A.    The fax traffic is demodulated and sent with VAD and echo chancellor disabled.
B.    When the TGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that has been contacted, the TGW
changes to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.
C.    When the OGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that is making the call, the OGW is
informed by the contacted device of the Cisco NSF features and switches to the G.711 codec
with VAD disabled.
D.    The contacting fax machine sends a TCF message to the contacted fax machine and waits for
a CFR message. When the CFR message is received, the fax tones sent by the contacting fax
machine cause the OGW to send an NSF message to the TGW, instructing it to switch to the
G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.

Answer: B

QUESTION 208
According to the Cisco QoS SRND guide, cRTP is recommended on which link speed?

A.    lower than or equal to 10 Mb/s
B.    lower than or equal to 384 kb/s
C.    lower than or equal to 1.544 Mb/s
D.    lower than or equal to 768 kb/s
E.    lower than or equal to 512 kb/s

Answer: D

QUESTION 209
An IP phone user just answered an incoming call by lifting the handset. Assuming that the IP phone uses SCCP, which SCCP message will Cisco Unified Communications Manager transmit to this called IP phone immediately after receiving notification about the off-hook event?

A.    Station Media Port List message
B.    Station Set Ringer message
C.    Station Stop Tone message
D.    Station Start Media Transmission message
E.    Station Open Receive Channel message

Answer: B

QUESTION 210
Which three statements about a modem pass-through call are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    Clear-channel codec is used to transport modem tones.
B.    G.711 mu-law codec is used to transport modem tones.
C.    VAD is disabled.
D.    VAD is enabled.
E.    NLP is disabled.
F.     NLP is enabled.

Answer: BCE

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Official 2014 Latest Cisco 350-030 Dump Free Download(191-200)!

QUESTION 191
Integrity, authentication, and encryption are some of the security features that are supported on Cisco Unified Communications Manager and IP phones. Which of these describes an integrity threat?

A.    modification of call-processing signals between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and IP phones
B.    man-in-the-middle attacks
C.    phone and server identity theft
D.    TFTP file manipulation
E.    unauthorized capturing and decoding of voice signaling packets

Answer: D

QUESTION 192
Which of the following three messages could be sent by the UAC in response to the 180 Ringing? (Choose three.)

A.    PR ACK
B.    ACK
C.    BYE
D.    CANCEL
E.    INVITE

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 193
Which signaling method cannot solve the FXO disconnect problem?

A.    power denial
B.    tone-based supervisory disconnect
C.    pulse dial
D.    ground-start signaling
E.    battery reversal

Answer: C

QUESTION 194
Which two telephony interfaces on a Cisco IOS gateway can be controlled by Cisco Unified Communications Manager using SCCP? (Choose two.)

A.    analog E&M
B.    ISDN BRI
C.    ISDN PRI
D.    analog FXS
E.    analog FXO

Answer: BD

Answer: B

QUESTION 195
CRTP belongs to which Cisco quality of service feature?

A.    classification
B.    congestion management
C.    congestion avoidance
D.    shaping and policing
E.    link efficiency mechanisms

Answer: E

QUESTION 196
You are implementing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution utilizing MGCP gateways with PRI interface cards. You are working with your security department, which has a firewall in place between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and the gateway. After the firewall is turned up, your PRI is no longer working. You suspect that the backhaul port has been blocked.
What port does Cisco Unified Communications Manager use between itself and an MGCP gateway for PRI backhaul traffic?

A.    2427
B.    2428
C.    2727
D.    2728
E.    9900

Answer: B

QUESTION 197
Which statement about the H.323 Fast Connect (also known as fast start) procedures is correct?

A.    Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by forcing all H.245 negotiations to take place earlier
during the H.225 message exchanges, setup time by allowing H.323 devices to propose and confirm
master-slave determination in H.225 message exchanges.
B.    Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by permitting calls to bypass certain H.225 steps and move
directly from H.225 setup to H.225 exchanges.
C.    Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by allowing H.323 devices to propose and confirm Open
Logical Channel in H.225 message connect.
D.    Fast Connect shortens the call setup time by allowing H.323 devices to use UDP as a transport
protocol for H.245 negotiation messages, exchanges.
E.    Fast Connect shortens the call reclaiming time that is otherwise used for TCP handshakes.

Answer: A

QUESTION 198
Which of these is not a valid switchback method for SCCP hardware conference bridges?

A.    immediate
B.    never
C.    graceful
D.    guard
E.    uptime

Answer: B

QUESTION 199
Which three statements are true about multicast IGMP snooping? (Choose three.)

A.    When a host in a multicast group sends an IGMP leave message, only that port is deleted from the
multicast group.
B.    An IP multicast stream to the IP host can be stopped only by an IGMP leave message.
C.    IGMP snooping does not examine or snoop Layer 3 information in packets that are sent between
the hosts and the router.
D.    When the switch hears the IGMP host report from a host for a particular multicast group, the switch
adds the host’s port number to the associated multicast table entry.
E.    IGMP control messages are transmitted as IGMP multicast packets so that they can be distinguished
from normal multicast data at Layer 2.
F.    A switch that is running IGMP snooping examines every multicast data packet to verify whether it
contains any pertinent IGMP “must control” information.

Answer: ADF

QUESTION 200
What are two advantages of multicast technologies? (Choose two.)

A.    Denial of service attacks in the network are prevented.
B.    They eliminate multipoint applications.
C.    They reduce traffic by delivering a separate stream of information to each corporate recipient or
home environment, which reduces bandwidth
D.    They control network traffic and reduce server and CPU load.
E.    They eliminate traffic redundancy.

Answer: DE

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QUESTION 181
Which of these is a pair of RSVP reservation types?

A.    Distinct and Shared
B.    Same and Distinct
C.    Shared and non-shared
D.    Reservation and Path

Answer: A

QUESTION 182
Company Alpha has a central office and a branch office that utilize a central call processing toplogy. Calls between the two sites are using the G.729 codec; calls within each site are using the G.711 codec.
To conference an existing call between two phones at the central site with a phone at the remote office, which two of the following are possible solutions? (Choose two.)

A.    a software conference bridge that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B.    a software conference bridge that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and a
HW transcoder
C.    a hardware conference bridge
D.    a hardware transcoder and a hardware conference bridge
E.    No extra configurations required-phones automatically negotiate using the lowest common denominator
codec (G.729)

Answer: BC

QUESTION 183
Which two statements apply to the partitions function in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)

A.    When a directory number or route pattern is placed into a certain partition, this creates a rule for who
can call that device or route list
B.    A partition is a logical grouping of directory numbers and route patterns that have similar reachability
characteristics.
C.    Calling Search Spaces are assigned to partitions.
D.    A directory number may appear in only one partition.
E.    Within the partition, each CSS has a directory number.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 184
What is the default DTMF relay for Cisco Unity Express when integrated via SIP?

A.    RTP-NTE
B.    SIP Notify
C.    SIP INFO
D.    in-band audio
E.    SIP Subscribe/Notify

Answer: B

QUESTION 185
Which event does not trigger Cisco Unity Connection to turn off MWI for a user IP phone?

A.    when all new messages are listened to
B.    when a user deletes a new message without listening to it
C.    when a user listens to only part of a message and hangs up
D.    when a user deletes a message after listening to only part of it
E.    none of the above

Answer: E

QUESTION 186
Which digital telephony signaling protocol does not support ANI information?

A.    T1 PRI
B.    T1 CAS E&M Feature Group B
C.    E1 R2
D.    T1 BRI
E.    T1 CAS E&M Feature Group D

Answer: B

QUESTION 187
A customer needs to create a plan for deploying QoS across the company network in anticipation of adding a VoIP solution and to clean up the existing network. Employees currently use a corporate intranet to report expenses and access ERP and manufacturing applications, the Intemet for customer support and customer orders, and a recently installed IP-based video- conferencing system, which has been only marginally successful because of poor quality.
Which four CoS-DSCP values should be applied to the customer network so that voice, video, and data all function properly? (Choose four.)

A.    ERP and manufacturing protocols AF31
B.    video AF41, video signaling CS3
C.    Voice bearer AF43, voice signaling AF26
D.    Internet BE
E.    ERP and manufacturing protocols AF43
F.    voice bearer EF, voice signaling CS3

Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 188
Which statement about the Media Resource Group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct?

A.    Different types of media resources cannot be grouped into the same Media Resource Group.
B.    A Media Resource Group contains a prioritized list of media resources.
C.    The default Media Resource Group is defined in the service parameters of Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
D.    Once a media resource is associated with a Media Resource Group, it is no longer eligible to be
associated with another Media Resource Group.
E.    The Media Resource Group configuration page allows administrators to choose whether to use
multicast for MOH audio.

Answer: E

QUESTION 189
Which three are valid T1 CAS types? (Choose three.)

A.    E&M signaling
B.    semicompelled signaling
C.    loop-start signaling
D.    line signaling
E.    Group 1 signaling
F.    ground-start signaling

Answer: ACF

QUESTION 190
Which two of these are possible reasons why a JTAPI subsystem might have the status PARTIAL_SERVICE? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco Unified Contact Center is not able to resolve the host name of Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
B.    A referenced CTI Route Point is not associated with the JTAPI user.
C.    The JTAPI user password is not correct.
D.    There is an error in one of the scripts being loaded.
E.    The CTI Manager service is not running on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

Answer: BD

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