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QUESTION 51
If the bandwidth total default 64 command is configured in a gatekeeper, then what is true of that gatekeeper?

A.    it will admit up to 64 calls, regardless of codec used
B.    it will not admit any calls because all calls initially account of 128 kb/s
C.    it will admit a minimum of four calls using the G.729 codec
D.    it will admit up to four calls using the G.729 codec
E.    it will admit a G.711 call in one direction only, since 64 is half of 128 kb/s

Answer: D

QUESTION 52
On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which MGCP message is initiated by the gateway?

A.    RQNT
B.    NTFY
C.    EPCF
D.    CRCX
E.    SETUP

Answer: B

QUESTION 53
According to the IEEE 802.3af PoE standard, what is the maximum power (in watts) that is delivered to a power-consuming device?

A.    6.3
B.    14.5
C.    15.4
D.    20
E.    22.5
F.    25.4

Answer: C

QUESTION 54
What is the complete name of LLDP-MED, an enhancement to the vendor-neutral LLDP that is supported on Cisco switches?

A.    Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Endpoint Discovery
B.    Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Enhancement Delivery
C.    Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Enhancement Discovery
D.    Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Multiple Enhancement Delivery
E.    Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Multiple Endpoint Discovery

Answer: A

QUESTION 55
Cisco Unified Communications Manager generates different types of alarms to indicate system- or process-related problems. “Code Yellow” is one of these alarms. Which of these system or process exceptions will trigger a Code Yellow alarm on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    when a hard drive fails
B.    when there is a memory leak
C.    when the Cisco Unified Communications Manager application generates a core dump
D.    when a database replication problem arises
E.    when calls are throttled because of an unacceptably high delay in call handling

Answer: E

QUESTION 56
The Cisco UMR feature allows Cisco Unity to take outside caller messages while their Exchange Server is unavailable. Which two statements about Cisco UMR are incorrect? (Choose two.)

A.    If the Cisco Unity primary Exchange Server goes offline, all subscribers hear the UMR conversation.
B.    Cisco Unity messages, deposited while the Message Store is down, will have different time stamps
after the Message Store returns to service and handles the message delivery.
C.    When Cisco Unity moves messages from Cisco UMR to the Exchange Server, all messages appear
as new even if they were listened to using the UMR conversation, thus also triggering MWIs.
D.    Cisco Unity does not light MWIs for messages that arrived during an outage and are in Cisco UMR.
E.    The Cisco UMR messages that Cisco Unity handled during an Exchange outage are stored in the
local directory at “C:\Commserver\UnityMTA”. This path is hardcoded and cannot be changed after
the Cisco Unity installation.
F.    During an Exchange outage, messages to the unaddressed message distribution lists appear in
Cisco UMR and can be accessed by all members of the list.

Answer: EF

QUESTION 57
Which Cisco IOS command and configuration mode can be used to force a Cisco IOS voice gateway to use TCP as the transport protocol for SIP?

A.    router(config)#sip transport tcp
B.    router(conf-voi-serv)#no sip transport udp
C.    router(conf-serv-sip)#no transport udp
D.    router(conf-serv-sip)#transport tcp
E.    router(config-sip-ua)#no transport udp

Answer: E

QUESTION 58
Which delay in a VoIP network is also known as accumulation delay?

A.    coder delay
B.    network switching delay
C.    queuing delay
D.    packetization delay
E.    dejitter delay

Answer: D

QUESTION 59
Which two characteristics about traffic shaping on Cisco IOS VoIP gateways are incorrect? (Choose two.)

A.    Traffic shaping propagates burst.
B.    Traffic shaping buffers and queues excess packets above the committed rates.
C.    Traffic shaping token values are configured in bits per second.
D.    Traffic shaping is applicable to both inbound and outbound traffic.
E.    FRTS and generic traffic shaping are two ways of implementing traffic shaping.
F.    Traffic shaping could introduce delays because of deep queues.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 60
On which gateway or gatekeeper is the IOS command call-rsvp-sync resv-timer 10 used to set the timer?

A.    originating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds
B.    originating and terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds
C.    terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds
D.    VoIP gatekeeper for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds

Answer: C

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QUESTION 41
Which two characteristics about traffic policing on Cisco IOS VoIP gateways are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    Traffic policing buffers and re-marks excess packets above the committed rates.
B.    Traffic policing propagates burst.
C.    Traffic policing token values are configured in bits per second.
D.    Traffic policing is applicable to both inbound and outbound traffic.
E.    Traffic policing is an inbound-only concept.
F.    Traffic policing could introduce delays because of deep queues.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 42
Which statement about the G.729 codec is correct?

A.    G.729 and G.729A are both high-complexity codecs.
B.    G.729A and G.729B both provice built-in VAD
C.    G.729 is a low-complexity codec, while G.729A is a high-complexity codec.
D.    G.729 is a high-complexity codec , while G.729A is medium-complexity codec.
E.    G.729 is a low-complexity codec,while G.729A is a medium-complexity codec.

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Which SCCP message is used to instruct to an SCCP IP Phone the remote IP address and port number to send RTP packets?

A.    Station IP Port Message
B.    Station Open Receive Channel message
C.    Station Start Media transmission message
D.    Station Call information message.
E.    Station Open Logical Channel message

Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which statement about the G.729 codec is correct?

A.    G.729 and G.729A are both high-complexity codecs.
B.    G.729A and G.729B both provide built-in VAD.
C.    G.729 is a low-complexity codec, while G.729A is a high-complexity codec.
D.    G.729 is a high-complexity codec, while G.729A is a medium-complexity codec.
E.    G.729 is a low-complexity codec, while G.729A is a medium-complexity codec.

Answer: D

QUESTION 45
Two H.323 gateways are engaged in an active call. How many RTP and RTCP packet streams exist between these two gateways?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    5
E.    6

Answer: C

QUESTION 46
Which statement about the Cisco unified Contact Center Express CDS is correct?

A.    Only the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Administration web interface (AppAdmin) writes
data to the CDS.
B.    In high availability, data is always written to the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express publisher
and then replicated to the subscriber.
C.    In high availability, when requested by the historical report client, data is always generated from the
Cisco Unified Contact Center Express publisher.
D.    In high availability, writing data to the CDS is only possible when both the Cisco Unified Contact
Center Express publisher and subscriber are up.

Answer: D

QUESTION 47
Which two strings are valid route patterns on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)

A.    123+
B.    123$
C.    123/
D.    123%
E.    123D
F.    123T

Answer: AE

QUESTION 48
Which two attributes are not used by a Cisco IOS router in the inbound dial-peer selection process? (Choose two)

A.    Default dial-peer 0
B.    Bed number with the destination-pattern command of each dial peer
C.    calling number with the destination-pattern command of each dial peer
D.    calling number with the answer-address command of each dial peer
E.    called number with the incoming called-number cornmand of each dial peer
F.    called number with the answer-address command of each dial peer
G.    voice port that is associated with an incoming call

Answer: BF

QUESTION 49
Which statement about whisper intercom implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct?

A.    Only one-way audio exists from the calling to the called party.
B.    The speaker volume on the called phone will be reduced automatically to avoid disturbance to
other users nearby.
C.    The called party auto-answers the call in headset mode.
D.    Only one-way audio exists from the called to the calling party.
E.    Whisper Intercom is visual only, there is no audio.

Answer: A

QUESTION 50
According to the IFFE 802 3af PoE standard, what is the maximum power (in watts) that is delivered to?

A.    63
B.    14.5
C.    15.4
D.    20
E.    22 5
F.    25.4

Answer: C

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QUESTION 21
Which three attributes correctly describe aspects of SIP? (Choose three)

A.    peer-to-peer
B.    Master/Slave
C.    call preservation on gateway failover from one Unified Communications Manager server to another
D.    communication with Unified Communications Manager handled via a proxy server
E.    centralized dial plan management
F.    intelligent endpoints

Answer: ADF

QUESTION 22
When using the Local Route Group feature in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, in which two levels can you apply the called party transformation pattern? (Choose two.)

A.    device pool
B.    gateway
C.    route pattern
D.    route group
E.    route list
F.    service parameter

Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
In a VoIP deployment, which two protocols satisfy the following three requirements? (Choose two)
Requirement 1: the protocol has a mechanism for a centralized dial-plan
Requirement 2: the endpoint are considered to be unintelligent
Requirement 3: the protocol is text-based

A.    SIP
B.    H.323
C.    MGCP
D.    SCCP

Answer: CD

QUESTION 24
According to RFC 3551, where default mappings between RTP payload type numbers and encodings are defined, which RTP payload type corresponds to encoded packets that are triggered by silence on a call with voice activity detection?

A.    0
B.    13
C.    15
D.    18

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.iana.org/assignments/rtp-parameters
As this link shows payload type 13 corresponds to
silence suppression, while payload type 18 corresponds to codec G729

QUESTION 25
When calls are placed by certain Cisco Unified Communications Manager supplementary services, the Local Route Group feature will be bypassed. Which of these does not belong to the supplementary services?

A.    Call Back
B.    Call Forward
C.    Message Waiting indicator
D.    Mobility Follow Me
E.    Path Replacement

Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which Cisco IOS Command and configuration mode can be used to force a Cisco IOS voice gateway to use TCP as the transport for SIP?

A.    router (config)#sip transport tcp
B.    router (conf-voi-serv)#no sip transport udp
C.    router (conf-serv-sip)# no sip transport udp
D.    router (conf-serv-sip)# transport tcp
E.    router (config-sip-us)# no transport udp

Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which statement about the Cisco Unity Connection message quota enforcement policies when a mailbox has exceeded the send/receive quota is incorrect?

A.    the user is unable to send messages.
B.    Cisco Unity Connection will automatically purge all deleted messages in the user mailbox.
C.    The user hears a warning that the message cannot be sent.
D.    Unidentified callers are not allowed are not allowed to leave message for the user.
E.    Message from other users generate nonedelivery receipts to the senders.

Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which of these best describes packetization delay in a VoIP network?

A.    the time that is taken by the DSP to compress a block of PCM samples
B.    the time that is taken by the compression algorithm to correctly process samples block N
C.    the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compression speech
D.    the time that is required to clock a voice frame onto the network interface
E.    the time that is taken to queue a voice frame for transmission on the network connection

Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Cisco Unity extends a number of schema object classes in Microsoft Active Directory during the schema extension process. Which three object classes are extended by the Cisco Unity schema extension process? (Choose three.)

A.    user
B.    computer
C.    domain
D.    organizational unit
E.    group
F.    contact

Answer: AEF

QUESTION 30
What is the default maximum recording length that is allowed for system broadcast messages on a Cisco Unity Connection server?

A.    5 minutes
B.    10 minutes
C.    15 minutes
D.    20 minutes
E.    30 minutes

Answer: A

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QUESTION 21
A Unity server is being deployed in a dual integration with CallManager and a PBX. The PBX integration will utilize a PIMG. Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose 2)

A.    The CallManager integration must be completed first.
B.    PCI voice cards are not required for the Unity server.
C.    The PBX will require an analog port for each PIMG port.
D.    The PBX and the PIMG must be co-located.
E.    The PIMG will communicate with Unity using SCCP.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 22
ACME is migrating from Exchange 5.5 to Exchange 2000. They have setup an Exchange Mixed- Mode Environment. Which of the following statements regarding integrating Unity into this environment are correct?

A.    The partner server must be an Exchange 2000 server for Unity to service both Exchange 5.5 and
Exchange 2000 mailboxes.
B.    One Unity server partners with an Exchange 2000 server and one Unity server partners with an
Exchange 5.5 server. Digital networking is used to forward messages between the systems.
C.    The Unity server can support multiple Exchange 5.5 organizations but only one Exchange 2000
domain.
D.    The Unity server must be voice-mail only until the Exchange migration is complete.

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which two of the following attributes would correctly describe H.323? (Choose 2)

A.    Peer-to-Peer
B.    Master/Slave
C.    Uses a Proxy Server to communicate with Cisco CallManager
D.    Centralized dial plan management
E.    Intelligent Endpoints

Answer: AE

QUESTION 24
Unity extensions will increase the Active Directory size by approximately what percent?

A.    5
B.    10
C.    15
D.    20

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which string is not a valid route pattern on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    123@
B.    123.
C.    123*
D.    123$
E.    123?

Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which R2 signaling element passes address information such as calling- and called-party numbers?

A.    pulse signaling
B.    delaydial signaling
C.    line signaling
D.    interregister signaling
E.    out-of-band signaling

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which three of these are possible reasons why a JTAPI subsystem might have the status PARTIAL_SERVICES? (Choose Three)

A.    Cisco Unified Contact Center is not able to resolve the host name of Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
B.    A referenced CTI Route Point is not associated with the JTAPI user.
C.    The JTAPI user password is not correct.
D.    There is an error in one of the scripts being loaded.

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 28
Which two codecs provide built-in VAD? (Choose two.)

A.    G.711 mu-law
B.    G722-64K
C.    G.723.1 Annex A
D.    G.726
E.    G 729
F.    G 729 Annex B

Answer: CF

QUESTION 29
Which two statements about the H.323 Fast Connect (also known as fast start) procedures are not correct? (Choose two.)

A.    Fast Connect was introduced in H.323 version 2.
B.    Fast Connect was introduced in H.323 version 3.
C.    Fast Connect Open Logical Channel elements can only be carried in H.225 call setup and
callconnect messages.
D.    Fast Connect Open Logical Channel elements can be carried in H.225 facility messages.
E.    The Fast Connect proposal can be refused by the receiving H.323 endpoint.
F.    Fast Connect allows logical channel negotiations earlier in the H.225 stage.

Answer: BF

QUESTION 30
Which E1 time slots are used to carry encoded voice only?

A.    time slots 0 to 31
B.    time slots 0 to 15, and 17 to 31
C.    time slots 1 to 32
D.    time slots 0 to 15, and 17 to 32
E.    time slots 0 to 15, and 17 to 32

Answer: B

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QUESTION 11
Which of the following does not accurately describe the database layer service in CM?

A.    The database layer is a set of DLLs that provide a common access point for data insertion, retrieval,
and modification of the database.
B.    The database information itself is made up of one publisher database, which is the very 1st CallManager
Machine in the CM cluster. All remaining machines in a cluster are subscriber databases.
C.    The publisher maintains a TCP connection with each subscriber database. For real-time processing
and call processing, each CallManager maintains a TCP connection with every other CallManager via
the Intra Cluster Communications Signalling (ICCS) protocol.
D.    The database layer monitors access to the Publisher. During a failure, it will try a replicated database
for device information and monitor the publisher for its return.
E.    All database records including Call Detail Records (CDR) are replicated from publisher to subscriber.

Answer: E

QUESTION 12
An IP Phone configured in voice VLAN 128 is registered to a CM cluster. It has speech connection established with another IP Phone which is connected to another CM cluster. Configured codec on both phones is G.711, 20 ms Sample. A PC is connected to back of an IP Phone which is running Sniffer Program and collecting packets coming out of the IP Phone. What would be data frame size coming out of the phone as seen in the Sniffer?

A.    64 bytes
B.    128 bytes
C.    160 bytes
D.    200 bytes
E.    204 bytes
F.    218 bytes

Answer: F

QUESTION 13
Which 2 functions are performed by a Route list?

A.    Matches dialed number for external calls
B.    Performs digit manipulation
C.    Points to a route list for routing
D.    Chooses path for call routing
E.    Points to prioritized route groups
F.    Points to the actual devices

Answer: DE

QUESTION 14
Which two ways are customized phone services subscribed to? (Choose 2)

A.    The CallManager administrator uses the Cisco IP Phone Services Configuration menu to define and
maintain the list of Cisco IP Phone services to which users can subscribe at their site.
B.    The CallManager administrator uses the Cisco IP Telephony Services Configuration menu to develop
separate lists of users and services.
C.    Users can log into the Cisco CallManager User Options Menu to subscribe to services already
configured by the CallManager administrator.
D.    Users can log into the Cisco CallManager User Options Menu and select the services they want to
subscribe to and CallManager will automatically configure those services.
E.    The CallManager administrator can add services to Cisco IP phones and device profiles.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is NOT true about Multicast IGMP Snooping?

A.    When a host in a multicast group sends a IGMP leave message, only that port is deleted from the
multicast group.
B.    An IP multicast stream to the IP host can only be stopped by an IGMP Leave message.
C.    IGMP snooping requires the LAN switch to examine, or snoop, some Layer 3 information in the IGMP
packets sent between the hosts and the router.
D.    When the switch hears the IGMP host report from a host for a particular multicast group, the switch
adds the host’s port number to the associated multicast table entry.
E.    Because IGMP control messages are transmitted as multicast packets, they are indistinguishable from
multicast data at Layer 2.
F.    A switch running IGMP snooping examine every multicast data packet to check whether it contains any
pertinent IGMP must control information.

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Why has Cisco chosen to use the SCCP protocol in its IP telephony networks?

A.    It is a peer to peer protocol.
B.    It uses intelligent endpoints.
C.    It is an industry standard, open protocol.
D.    It enables the use of a rich set of features.

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
When implementing IP Communicator in CallManager, which two steps need to be accomplished in order for the application to operate correctly? (Choose 2)

A.    Verify CallManager version
B.    Create and associate a user ID with the communicator device
C.    Configure a new CTI port to connect IP Communicator to CallManager
D.    Associate directory number from desk phone with IP Communicator software
E.    Configure MAC address from Ethernet interface on the PC where IP communicator will be installed
in Phone Configuration screen in CallManager

Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
In CME, which command/debug will show MAC Address, IP Address, DN and Phone Model of phones that are registered/while registering? (Choose 2)

A.    debug ephone detail
B.    show ephone-dn
C.    show ephone
D.    show ephone-dn registered
E.    debug ephone register

Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
Given a Catalyst 3550 configured to support IPT, which configuration would correctly identify voice and call signaling traffic originating from a Cisco IP Phone? (Note: Assume that all other QoS configurations – both on the switch and on the Cisco CallManager – are set according to current Cisco best-practice recommendations.)

A.    class-map match-all VOICE
match dscp ef
class-map match-all CALL-SIGNALING
match dscp af31
B.    class-map match-all VOICE
match cos 5
class-map match-all CALL-SIGNALING
match cos 3
C.    class-map match-all VOICE
match dscp 5
class-map match-all CALL-SIGNALING
match dscp 3
D.    class-map match-all VOICE
match ip dscp 46
class-map match-all CALL-SIGNALING
match ip dscp 24

Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A company would like to provide marketing messages when callers are placed on hold. Each department in the company needs to have a specific MoH message for their callers. There are 12 departments in the company. Eleven of the departments are sales oriented and need to market to customers with MOH. The 12th department is administration and will require specific messages for each group within that department. How should the MoH services be configured for this company?

A.    Use multicast to stream the MoH files for the sales departments and multicast for a single stream
for administration.
B.    Use unicast to stream the MoH files for the sales departments and multicast for a single stream for
administration.
C.    Use unicast to stream the MoH files for the sales departments and administration.
D.    Use multicast to stream one message to each caller for all the sales departments and unicast to
stream a different set of messages to each caller for each administrative group.
E.    Use multicast to stream a different message to each sales department caller and unicast to each
caller for each administrative group.

Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
IP phones A (extension 1001), B (extension 1002), and C (extension 1003) are registered to the CME system and are able to call each other by dialing each others’ extension numbers. However, when any of the phones attempt to transfer a call to any of the other phones they get a fast busy tone. How can the transfer issue be resolved? (Choose 2)

A.    Upgrade the IP phone firmware with the latest version.
B.    Reset the phonesso that the transfer capability will work.
C.    Add this command under “telephony service” on the CME system: transfer-pattern 1 . . .
or transfer-pattern . . . ‘
D.    Add this command under “telephony-service” on the CME system: transfer-system full-consult

Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Which ports must be opened on an IOS firewall to allow successful H.225 RAS (Registration, Admission, and Status) message exchanges between an IOS gatekeeper and IOS H.323 gateways?

A.    TCP 1718 and TCP 1719
B.    UDP 1718 and TCP 1719
C.    UDP 1718 and UDP 1719
D.    UDP 1719 and UDP 1720
E.    TCP 1718 and TCP 1720

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Company CADORNA’s INC. is planning a deployment of Cisco Contact Center Express and are looking for a design that provides maximum resilience, performance, and redundancy. They are planning to install Cisco CallManager 4.1(3) and Cisco Contact Center Express 4.0. How many CTI Managers can we configure in one cluster?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8
E.    16

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Company CADORNA’s INC. is planning a deployment of Cisco IP Telephony using the Centralized Call Processing model, using Cisco CallManager 4.1(3). The company has 1 HQ and 25 branches interconnected with an MPLS network that provides “full-mesh” connectivity between all sites. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A.    This topology implies that, from an IP routing perspective on the enterprise side of the network,
each site is one IP hop away from all other sites.
B.    From the Cisco CallManager’s call admission control perspective, a service-provider IP WAN service
based on MPLS is in reality equivalent to a hub-and-spoke topology without a hub site.
C.    This configuration requires that call admission control be performed on the central site link independently
of the branch links.
D.    The Cisco CallManager Servers need to be aware of the underlying MPLS network by setting the
appropriate Enterprise Parameters.
E.    All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
If the CFNA and CFB are set to a hunt pilot number, what impact will the maximum hunt timer have on a call sent to the hunt pilot?

A.    The timer limits the number of seconds allotted for hunting through a hunt list.
B.    The timer limits the number of seconds the call will wait for an answer at each member of a line group.
C.    The timer limits the number of seconds a call will wait before being forwarded to a voice- messaging
system, a specific dialed number, or some personal treatment (if configured), or the call gets released.
D.    The timer allows limits on the number of seconds allotted to hunting through a line group.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Two ports on a 3600 gateway platform are stuck in the EM_PARK state. What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose 2)

A.    A call is parked and no one has answered.
B.    A fake answer has been configured on the router.
C.    The DSP is having hardware or software issues.
D.    The PSTN switch / PBX is sending a continuous off-hook signal

Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is NOT true about DHCP snooping?

A.    DHCP snooping is a feature that provides network security by filtering untrusted DHCP messages
and by building and maintaining a DHCP snooping binding database.
B.    For DHCP snooping to function properly, all DHCP servers must be connected to the switch through
trusted interfaces.
C.    DHCP Snooping is enabled by VLAN.
D.    DHCP Snooping has the capability to use rate limiting.
E.    DHCP Snooping stops Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) Attacks

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Acme Widgets Inc. wants to compress the voice data traveling over their WAN connection to their parent company. They are presently using the G.729 loading two voice frames per packet. When they implement cRTP using the ip rtp header-compression command, what will be the bandwidth consumption per call over the HDLC WAN link?

A.    8.0 kbps
B.    8.8 kbps
C.    9.6 kbps
D.    12.0 kbps
E.    16.0 kbps

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two conditions will result in an H.323 gatekeeper receiving an ARQ from a registered H.323 endpoint? (Choose two.)

A.    A remote zone endpoint initiates a call.
B.    A local zone endpoint requests permission to admit an incoming call.
C.    A remote zone endpoint sends keepalive to ensure registration continuity.
D.    A remote zone gatekeeper initiates a call.
E.    A local zone endpoint initiates a call.
F.    A local zone endpoint sends keepalive to ensure registration continuity.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Match the IP Multicast Components as per their simple definitions.
1) Basic Multicast
2) Reliable Multicast
3) One-to-Many Multicast
4) Inter-Domain Multicast
5) Many-to-Many Multicast
a. MBGP , MSDP, Anycast RP, RGMP, BSR
b. SSM and IGMP v3
c. PIM – Bi-Directional
d. PGM
e. PIM SM, DM, Auto RP, IGMP v2, CGMP

A.    1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – e, 5 – a
B.    1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – b
C.    1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a, 5 – c
D.    1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e

Answer: C

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QUESTION 81
Which other match command is used with the match flow ip destination-address command within the class map configurations of the Cisco ASA MPF?

A.    match tunnel-group
B.    match access-list
C.    match default-inspection-traffic
D.    match port
E.    match dscp

Answer: A

QUESTION 82
Which Cisco ASA configuration is used to configure the TCP intercept feature?

A.    a TCP map
B.    an access list
C.    the established command
D.    the set connection command with the embryonic-conn-max option
E.    a type inspect policy map

Answer: D

QUESTION 83
On which type of encrypted traffic can a Cisco ASA appliance running software version 8.4.1 perform application inspection and control?

A.    IPsec
B.    SSL
C.    IPsec or SSL
D.    Cisco Unified Communications
E.    Secure FTP

Answer: D

QUESTION 84
The Cisco ASA software image has been erased from flash memory. Which two statements about the process to recover the Cisco ASA software image are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Access to the ROM monitor mode is required.
B.    The Cisco ASA appliance must have connectivity to the TFTP server where the Cisco ASA image is
stored through the Management 0/0 interface.
C.    The copy tftp flash command is necessary to start the TFTP file transfer.
D.    The server command is necessary to set the TFTP server IP address.
E.    Cisco ASA password recovery must be enabled
Answer: AD

QUESTION 85
Which two Cisco ASA licensing features are correct with Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3 and later? (Choose two.)

A.    Identical licenses are not required on the primary and secondary Cisco ASA appliance.
B.    Cisco ASA appliances configured as failover pairs disregard the time-based activation keys.
C.    Time-based licenses are stackable in duration but not in capacity.
D.    A time-based license completely overrides the permanent license, ignoring all permanently licensed
features until the time-based license is uninstalled.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 86
Which three actions can be applied to a traffic class within a type inspect policy map? (Choose three.)

A.    drop
B.    priority
C.    log
D.    pass
E.    inspect
F.    reset

Answer: ACF

QUESTION 87
Which Cisco ASA platform should be selected if the requirements are to support 35,000 connections per second, 600,000 maximum connections, and traffic shaping?

A.    5540
B.    5550
C.    5580-20
D.    5580-40

Answer: B

QUESTION 88
Authorization of a clientless SSL VPN defines the actions that a user may perform within a clientless SSL VPN session. Which statement is correct concerning the SSL VPN authorization process?

A.    Remote clients can be authorized by applying a dynamic access policy, which is configured on an
external AAA server.
B.    Remote clients can be authorized externally by applying group parameters from an external database.
C.    Remote client authorization is supported by RADIUS and TACACS+ protocols.
D.    To configure external authorization, you must configure the Cisco ASA for cut-through proxy.

Answer: B

QUESTION 89
Which Cisco ASA SSL VPN feature provides support for PCI compliance by allowing for the validation of two sets of username and password credentials on the SSL VPN login page?

A.    Single Sign-On
B.    Certificate to Profile Mapping
C.    Double Authentication
D.    RSA OTP

Answer: C

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QUESTION 71
When implementing GET VPN, which of these is a characteristic of GDOI IKE?

A.    GDOI IKE sessions are established between all peers in the network
B.    GDOI IKE uses UDP port 500
C.    Security associations do not need to linger between members once a group member has authenticated
to the key server and obtained the group policy
D.    Each pair of peers has a private set of IPsec security associations that is only shared between the
two peers

Answer: C

QUESTION 72
Which two features are required when configuring a DMVPN network? (Choose two.)

A.    Dynamic routing protocol
B.    GRE tunnel interface
C.    Next Hop Resolution Protocol
D.    Dynamic crypto map
E.    IPsec encryption

Answer: BC

QUESTION 73
When you are configuring a DMVPN network, which tunnel mode should you use for the hub router configuration?

A.    GRE multipoint
B.    classic point-to-point GRE
C.    IPsec multipoint
D.    nonbroadcast multiaccess

Answer: A

QUESTION 74
Which Cisco IOS feature provides secure, on-demand meshed connectivity?

A.    Easy VPN
B.    IPsec VPN
C.    mGRE
D.    DMVPN

Answer: D

QUESTION 75
Which of these is true regarding tunnel configuration when deploying a Cisco ISR as a DMVPN hub router?

A.    Only one tunnel can be created per tunnel source interface.
B.    Only one tunnel can be created and should be associated with a loopback interface for dynamic
redundancy
C.    The GRE tunnel key is used to encrypt the traffic going through the tunnel through the hub.
D.    You can run multiple parallel DMVPNs on the hub router, but each tunnel requires a unique tunnel key.

Answer: D

QUESTION 76
When you are configuring a hub-and-spoke DMVPN network, which tunnel mode should you use for the spoke router configuration?

A.    GRE multipoint
B.    Classis point-to-point GRE
C.    IPsec multipoint
D.    Nonbroadcast multiaccess

Answer: B

QUESTION 77
With Cisco ASA active/standby failover, by default, how many monitored interface failures will cause failover to occur?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    4
E.    5

Answer: A

QUESTION 78
Which two statements about the running configuration of the Cisco ASA are true? (Choose Two)

A.    The auto NAT configuration causes all traffic arriving on the inside interface destined to any outside
destinations to be translated with dynamic port address transmission using the outside interface
IP address.
B.    The Cisco ASA is using the Cisco ASDM image from disk1:/asdm-642.bin
C.    The Cisco ASA is setup as the DHCP server for hosts that are on the inside and outside interfaces.
D.    SSH and Cisco ASDM access to the Cisco ASA requires AAA authentication using the LOCAL
user database.
E.    The Cisco ASA is using a persistent self-signed certified so users can authenticate the Cisco ASA
when accessing it via ASDM

Answer: AE

QUESTION 79
Which option lists the main tasks in the correct order to configure a new Layer 3 and 4 inspection policy on the Cisco ASA appliance using the Cisco ASDM Configuration > Firewall > Service Policy Rules pane?

A.    1. Create a class map to identify which traffic to match.
2. Create a policy map and apply action(s) to the traffic class(es).
3. Apply the policy map to an interface or globally using a service policy.
B.    1. Create a service policy rule.
2. Identify which traffic to match.
3. Apply action(s) to the traffic.
C.    1. Create a Layer 3 and 4 type inspect policy map.
2. Create class map(s) within the policy map to identify which traffic to match.
3. Apply the policy map to an interface or globally using a service policy.
D.    1. Identify which traffic to match.
2. Apply action(s) to the traffic.
3. Create a policy map.
4. Apply the policy map to an interface or globally using a service policy.

Answer: B

QUESTION 80
By default, how does a Cisco ASA appliance process IP fragments?

A.    Each fragment passes through the Cisco ASA appliance without any inspections.
B.    Each fragment is blocked by the Cisco ASA appliance.
C.    The Cisco ASA appliance verifies each fragment and performs virtual IP re-assembly before the
full IP packet is forwarded out.
D.    The Cisco ASA appliance forwards the packet out as soon as all of the fragments of the packet
have been received.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 61
Which three settings are required for crypto map configuration? (Choose three.)

A.    match address
B.    set peer
C.    set transform-set
D.    set security-association lifetime
E.    set security-association level per-host
F.    set pfs

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 62
A network is configured to allow clientless access to resources inside the network. Which feature must be enabled and configured to allow SSH applications to respond on the specified port 8889?

A.    auto applet download
B.    port forwarding
C.    web-type ACL
D.    HTTP proxy

Answer: B

QUESTION 63
Consider this scenario. When users attempt to connect via a Cisco AnyConnect VPN session, the certificate has changed and the connection fails.
What is a possible cause of the connection failure?

A.    An invalid modulus was used to generate the initial key.
B.    The VPN is using an expired certificate.
C.    The Cisco ASA appliance was reloaded.
D.    The Trusted Root Store is configured incorrectly.

Answer: C

QUESTION 64
In the Cisco ASDM interface, where do you enable the DTLS protocol setting?

A.    Configuration > Remote Access VPN > Network (Client) Access > Group Policies > Add or Edit >
Add or Edit Internal Group Policy
B.    Configuration > Remote Access VPN > Network (Client) Access > AAA Setup > Local Users > Add or Edit
C.    Device Management > Users/AAA > User Accounts > Add or Edit > Add or Edit User Account >
VPN Policy > SSL VPN Client
D.    Configuration > Remote Access VPN > Network (Client) Access > Group Policies > Add or Edit

Answer: D

QUESTION 65
What are two forms of SSL VPN? (Choose two.)

A.    port forwarding
B.    Full Tunnel Mode
C.    Cisco IOS WebVPN
D.    Cisco AnyConnect

Answer: AB

QUESTION 66
When Cisco ASA applies VPN permissions, what is the first set of attributes that it applies?

A.    dynamic access policy attributes
B.    group policy attributes
C.    connection profile attributes
D.    user attributes

Answer: A

QUESTION 67
What are two variables for configuring clientless SSL VPN single sign-on? (Choose two.)

A.    CSCO_WEBVPN_OTP_PASSWORD
B.    CSCO_WEBVPN_INTERNAL_PASSWORD
C.    CSCO_WEBVPN_USERNAME
D.    CSCO_WEBVPN_RADIUS_USER

Answer: BC

QUESTION 68
An internet-based VPN solution is being considered to replace anexisting private WAN connectingremote offices. A multimedia application is used that relies on multicast for communication. Which two VPN solutions meet the application’s network requirement? (Choose two.)

A.    FlexVPN
B.    DMVPN
C.    Group Encrypted Transport VPN
D.    Crypto-map based Site-to-Site IPsec VPNs
E.    AnyConnect VPN

Answer: AB

QUESTION 69
In a GET VPN solution, which two ways can the key server distribute the new keys to the group members during the rekey process? (Choose two.)

A.    multicast UDP transmission
B.    multicast TCP transmission
C.    unicast UDP transmission
D.    unicast TCP transmission

Answer: AC

QUESTION 70
An IOS SSL VPN is configured to forward TCP ports. A remote user cannot access the corporate FTP site with a Web browser. What is a possible reason for the failure?

A.    The user’s FTP application is not supported.
B.    The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Thin Client Mode.
C.    The user is connecting to an IOS VPN gateway configured in Tunnel Mode.
D.    The user’s operating system is not supported.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 51
A company has decided to migrate an existing IKEv1 VPN tunnel to IKEv2. Which two arevalid configuration constructs on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose two.)

A.    crypto ikev2 keyring keyring-name
peer peer1
address 209.165.201.1 255.255.255.255
pre-shared-key local key1
pre-shared-key remote key2
B.    crypto ikev2 transform-set transform-set-name esp-3des esp-md5-hmac
esp-aes esp-sha-hmac
C.    crypto ikev2 map crypto-map-name
set crypto ikev2 tunnel-group tunnel-group-name
set crypto ikev2 transform-set transform-set-name
D.    crypto ikev2 tunnel-group tunnel-group-name
match identity remote address 209.165.201.1
authentication local pre-share
authentication remote pre-share
E.    crypto ikev2 profile profile-name
match identity remote address 209.165.201.1
authentication local pre-share
authentication remote pre-share

Answer: AE

QUESTION 52
Guaranteed success with TestInsides practice guides 2 Cisco 300-209 : Practice Test
Which four activities does the Key Server perform in a GETVPN deployment? (Choose four.)

A.    authenticates group members
B.    manages security policy
C.    creates group keys
D.    distributes policy/keys
E.    encrypts endpoint traffic
F.    receives policy/keys
G.    defines group members

Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 53
Where is split-tunneling defined for remote access clients on an ASA?

A.    Group-policy
B.    Tunnel-group
C.    Crypto-map
D.    Web-VPN Portal
E.    ISAKMP client

Answer: A

QUESTION 54
Which of the following could be used to configure remote access VPN Host-scan and pre- login policies?

A.    ASDM
B.    Connection-profile CLI command
C.    Host-scan CLI command under the VPN group policy
D.    Pre-login-check CLI command

Answer: A

QUESTION 55
Guaranteed success with TestInsides practice guides 3 Cisco 300-209 : Practice Test
In FlexVPN, what command can an administrator use to create a virtual template interface that can be configured and applied dynamically to create virtual access interfaces?

A.    interface virtual-template number type template
B.    interface virtual-template number type tunnel
C.    interface template number type virtual
D.    interface tunnel-template number

Answer: B

QUESTION 56
In FlexVPN, what is the role of a NHRP resolution request?

A.    It allows these entities to directly communicate without requiring traffic to use an intermediate hop
B.    It dynamically assigns VPN users to a group
C.    It blocks these entities from to directly communicating with each other
D.    It makes sure that each VPN spoke directly communicates with the hub

Answer: A

QUESTION 57
What are three benefits of deploying a GET VPN? (Choose three.)

A.    It provides highly scalable point-to-point topologies.
B.    It allows replication of packets after encryption.
C.    It is suited for enterprises running over a DMVPN network.
D.    It preserves original source and destination IP address information.
E.    It simplifies encryption management through use of group keying.
F.    It supports non-IP protocols.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 58
What is the default topology type for a GET VPN?

A.    point-to-point
B.    hub-and-spoke
C.    full mesh
D.    on-demand spoke-to-spoke

Answer: C

QUESTION 59
Which two GDOI encryption keys are used within a GET VPN network? (Choose two.)

A.    key encryption key
B.    group encryption key
C.    user encryption key
D.    traffic encryption key

Answer: AD

QUESTION 60
What are the three primary components of a GET VPN network? (Choose three.)

A.    Group Domain of Interpretation protocol
B.    Simple Network Management Protocol
C.    server load balancer
D.    accounting server
E.    group member
F.    key server

Answer: AEF

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QUESTION 41
Guaranteed success with TestInsides practice guides 22 Cisco 300-209 : Practice Test
Which NGE IKE Diffie-Hellman group identifier has the strongest cryptographic properties?

A.    group 20
B.    group 24
C.    group 5
D.    group 20

Answer: D

QUESTION 42
What is the Cisco recommended TCP maximum segment on a DMVPN tunnel interface when the MTU is set to 1400 bytes?

A.    1160 bytes
B.    1260 bytes
C.    1360 bytes
D.    1240 bytes

Answer: C

QUESTION 43
Which technology does a multipoint GRE interface require to resolve endpoints?

A.    ESP
B.    dynamic routing
C.    NHRP
D.    CEF
E.    IPSec

Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which two cryptographic technologies are recommended for use with FlexVPN? (Choose two.)

A.    SHA (HMAC variant)
B.    Diffie-Hellman
C.    DES
D.    MD5 (HMAC variant)

Answer: AB

QUESTION 45
Which command configures IKEv2 symmetric identity authentication?

A.    match identity remote address 0.0.0.0
B.    authentication local pre-share
C.    authentication pre-share
D.    authentication remote rsa-sig

Answer: D

QUESTION 46
Which two examples of transform sets are contained in the IKEv2 default proposal? (Choose two.)

A.    aes-cbc-192, sha256, 14
B.    3des, md5, 5
C.    3des, sha1, 1
D.    aes-cbc-128, sha, 5

Answer: BD

QUESTION 47
What is the default storage location of user-level bookmarks in an IOS clientless SSL VPN?

A.    disk0:/webvpn/{context name}/
B.    disk1:/webvpn/{context name}/
C.    flash:/webvpn/{context name}/
D.    nvram:/webvpn/{context name}/

Answer: C

QUESTION 48
Which command will prevent a group policy from inheriting a filter ACL in a clientless SSL VPN?

A.    vpn-filter none
B.    no vpn-filter
C.    filter value none
D.    filter value ACLname

Answer: C

QUESTION 49
Which command specifies the path to the Host Scan package in an ASA AnyConnect VPN?

A.    csd hostscan path image
B.    csd hostscan image path
C.    csd hostscan path
D.    hostscan image path

Answer: B

QUESTION 50
Which two are characteristics of GETVPN? (Choose two.)

A.    The IP header of the encrypted packet is preserved
B.    A key server is elected among all configured Group Members
C.    Unique encryption keys are computed for each Group Member
D.    The same key encryption and traffic encryption keys are distributed to all Group Members

Answer: AD

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