IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Implementation

Vendor: IBM
Exam Code: C2010-568
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Implementation

QUESTION 1
When trying to log in to Managing Server (MS), the Access Denied message appears. It is suspected that the password for accessing MS database has expired after 90 days due to the company security policy. How could this be verified?

A.    $MS_HOME/bin/klctl.sh dbtest
B.    $MS_HOME/bin/klcheck.sh dbtest
C.    $MS_HOME/bin/klcheck.sh octigate
D.    $MS_HOME/bin/klctl.sh -action dbtest

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which command and syntax configures the IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Agent for HTTP Servers in AIX environment?

A.    tacmd config -A ht
B.    itmcmd config -A yn
C.    itmcmd config -A ht
D.    tacmd config agent http

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two areas must be reviewed when examining the project scope of an IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 implementation project? (Choose two.)

A.    will remote access be provided
B.    the required level of customization necessary
C.    application environments that need to be monitored
D.    the size of the customer’s current IBM Tivoli Monitoring environment
E.    the skill level of the engineers in the company’s Information Technology department

Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which file should be changed in a Tomcat property file for IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 in order for the logging files location to be modified for a Data Collector?

A.    CYN.handler.FileLoc
B.    MS.Property.file.LOC
C.    MS.handler.file.fileDir
D.    CYN.handler.file.fileDir

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 environment is being fine tuned at a customer site. Which parameter is likely to be excluded from changes that are made?

A.    datacollector.frequency
B.    networkagent.publish.frequency
C.    datacollector.publish.frequency
D.    network.collector.publish.frequency

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which three pieces of information must be collected when reviewing the customer’s current monitoring environment? (Choose three.)

A.    type of firewalls that are used
B.    the network speed between data centers
C.    which user authentication method is used
D.    how the customer’s operation center works
E.    is IBM Tivoli Monitoring implemented and which version
F.    is there an earlier version of IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application
Diagnostics installed

Answer: CEF

QUESTION 7
Which local command should be run to determine if the Monitoring Agent is at the correct level after installing and configuring the Maintenance Delivery Vehicle?

A.    execute the command tacmd listSystems -t on the local agent’s host command line and
note the monitoring agent’s installed maintenance level
B.    execute the command tacmd listSystemlist -t on the local agent’s host command line and
note the monitoring agent’s installed maintenance level
C.    execute the command cinfo -i (UNIX/Linux) or kincinfo -i on the local agent’s host command
line and note the monitoring agent’s installed maintenance level
D.    execute the command cinfo -R (UNIX/Linux) or kincinfo -R on the local agent’s host command
line and note the monitoring agent’s installed maintenance level

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A customer is running IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Web Resources V6.2 (ITCAM for WR) to monitor its middleware environment. However, after having heard about new features of IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 (ITCAM for AD), the customer is considering an upgrade. What is a possible approach to satisfy the customer’s need?

A.    It is only possible to install ITCAM for AD V7.1 from scratch.
B.    ITCAM for WR V6.2 can be upgraded to ITCAM for AD V7.1.
C.    ITCAM for WR is a newer product in comparison to ITCAM for AD V7.1.
D.    ITCAM for WR needs to be migrated to ITCAM for WebSphere V6.1 before upgrading
to ITCAM for AD V7.1.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Using the Managing Server Visualization Engine, which menu option views the Slowest Transactions, Transaction Snapshot (+/- 10 Minutes from Event), Response Time, CPU Usage, # of Sessions, # of Requests, and Heap Usage all on one page?

A.    Problem Center
B.    Alerts and Events
C.    Trap and Alert Management
D.    Software Consistency Check

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A customer is trying to configure the Data Collector on Linux in Silent mode using this command:/opt/IBM/ITM/bin/itmcmd config -A -p ynv_silent_config_wasdc.txt ynThe configuration fails with this error
message:com.ibm.tivoli.itcam.install.was.config.requestaction.ValidateException:Specified directory "/opt/WebSphere/V61/AppServer/profiles/AppSrvs" is not found, please correct the value of parameter "DC_CONFIG_SELECT_PROFILE_NONGUI" Why?

A.    An invalid value was specified for KYJ_WAS_HOME variable.
B.    An invalid value was specified for KYN_WAS_HOME variable.
C.    An invalid value was specified for KYN_CONFIG_MODE variable.
D.    An invalid value was specified for KYJ_PROFILE_HOME variable.

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A customer suspects that the WAS application is having memory issues. How can the customer monitor heap size usage after garbage collection cycle with IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Agent for WebSphere Applications?

A.    use a predefined situation: WASOutofHeapSpace
B.    a custom situation must be created for the customer
C.    use a predefined situation: WASAvgHeapSizeAfterGCHigh
D.    it is only possible in deep-dive diagnostics using a managing server

Answer: C

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QUESTION 41
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.)

A.    multicast routing uses RPF.
B.    multicast routing is connectionless.
C.    In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known.
D.    When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path
E.    Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers
rather than just one destination

Answer: AC

QUESTION 42
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high availability within the Enterprise Campus network?

A.    High availability at and between the Distribution and Access layers is as simple as redundant switches
and redundant Layer 3 connections
B.    Non-deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design
C.    Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost load sharing
connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link between the Distribution
switches to support summarization of routing information from the Distribution to the Core
D.    Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant Distribution switch without affecting
endpoint connectivity

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Which of the following should the Enterprise Campus network designer consider with respect to Video traffic?

A.    While it is expected that the sum of all forms of video traffic will grow to over 90% by 2013, the
Enterprise will be spared this rapid adoption of video by consumers through a traditional top-down approach
B.    Avoid bandwidth starvation due to video traffic by preventing and controlling the wide adoption
of unsupported video applications
C.    Which traffic model is in use, the flow direction for the traffic streams between the application
components, and the traffic trends for each video application
D.    Streaming video applications are sensitive to delay while interactive video applications, using
TCP as the underlying transport, are fairly tolerant of delay and jitter

Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which two design recommendations are most appropriate when OSPF is the data center core routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    Never use passive interfaces.
B.    Use NSSA areas from the core down.
C.    Use totally stub areas to stop type 3 LSAs.
D.    Use the lowest Ethernet interface IP address as the router ID.
E.    Manipulate the reference bandwidth.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 45
Which two design recommendations are most appropriate when EIGRP is the data center core routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    Summarize data center subnets.
B.    Advertise a default route into the data center core from the aggregation layer.
C.    Tune the EIGRP timers to enable EIGRP to achieve quicker convergence.
D.    Adjust the default bandwidth value to ensure proper bandwidth on all links.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 46
Which three Layer 2 access designs have all of their uplinks in an active state? (Choose three.)

A.    Flex Links
B.    loop-free U
C.    looped square
D.    looped triangle
E.    loop-free inverted U

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 47
Which three statements about Network Attached Storage are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    Data is accessed using NFS or CIFS.
B.    Data is accessed at the block level.
C.    NAS is referred to as captive storage.
D.    Storage devices can be shared between servers.
E.    A NAS implementation is not as fast as a DAS implementation.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 48
In a collapsed core design, which three benefits are provided by a second-generation Cisco MDS director? (Choose three.)

A.    a higher fan-out ratio
B.    fully redundant switches
C.    100 percent port efficiency
D.    all ISLs contained within a single chassis
E.    higher latency and throughput than a core-edge design switch

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 49
Which two statements about both FCIP and iSCSI are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    They support file-level storage for remote devices.
B.    They require high throughput with low latency and low jitter.
C.    Their purpose is to provide connectivity between host and storage.
D.    They support block-level storage for remote devices.
E.    Their purpose is to provide connectivity between separate wide-area SANs.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 50
Which three statements about zoning are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    Zoning increases security.
B.    DNS queries are used for software zoning.
C.    Software zoning is more secure than hardware zoning.
D.    When using zones and VSANs together, the zone is created first.
E.    Zoning requires that VSANs be established before it becomes operational.

Answer: ABE

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QUESTION 31
Which of the following is true concerning best design practices at the switched Access layer of the traditional layer2 Enterprise Campus Network?

A.    Cisco NSF with SSO and redundant supervisors has the most impact on the campus in the Access layer
B.    Provide host-level redundancy by connecting each end device to 2 separate Access switches
C.    Offer default gateway redundancy by using dual connections from Access switches to redundant
Distribution layer switches using a FHRP
D.    Include a link between two Access switches to support summarization of routing information from
the Access to the Distribution layer

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which protocol will not adhere to the design requirement of the control plane being either separated or combined within a virtualization technology?

A.    FHRP
B.    STP
C.    CEF
D.    NSF with SSO

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which of the following features might be used by the Enterprise Campus network designer as a means of route filtering?

A.    IPv4 static routes
B.    Route tagging using a route map in an ACL
C.    Tagging routes using the BGP MED
D.    EIGRP stub networks

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
The network designer needs to consider the number of multicast applications and sources in the
network to provide the most robust network possible. Which of the following is a consideration the designer must also address?

A.    The IGPs should utilize authentication to avoid being the most vulnerable component
B.    With SSM source or receiver attacks are not possible
C.    With Shared Trees access control is always applied at the RP
D.    Limit the rate of Register messages to the RP to prevent specific hosts from being attacked on a
PIM-SM network

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
When considering the design of the E-Commerce topology which of the following are true?

A.    One-armed SLB design with multiple security contexts removes the need for a separate firewall in
the core layer
B.    Two-firewall-layer SLB design considers the aggregation and access layers to be trusted zones,
requiring no security between the web, application, and database zones
C.    One-armed SLB design with two firewall layers ensures that non load-balanced traffic still traverses
the ACE so that the health and performance of the servers is still being monitored
D.    In all cases there will be configuration requirements for direct access to any servers or for nonload-balanced
sessions initiated by the servers

Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Distinct, physical redundancy within a network layer is a key characteristic that contributes to the high availability of the hierarchical network design. Which of the following is not an examples of this model?

A.    SAN extension with dual fabrics such as a yellow VSAN and a blue VSAN utilized via multipath software
B.    Redundant power supplies and hot-swappable fan trays in Aggregate switches
C.    A single SAN fabric with redundant uplinks and switches
D.    Servers using network adapter teaming software connected to dual-attached access switches

Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which four Cisco proprietary Spanning Tree Protocol enhancements are supported with rapid per- VLAN Spanning-Tree plus? (Choose four.)

A.    PortFast
B.    UplinkFast
C.    loop guard
D.    root guard
E.    BPDU guard
F.    BackboneFast

Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 38
Which two of these are correct regarding the recommended practice for distribution layer design? (Choose two.)

A.    use a redundant link to the core
B.    use a Layer 2 link between distribution switches
C.    never use a redundant link to the core because of convergence issues
D.    use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches with route summarization
E.    use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches without route summarization

Answer: AD

QUESTION 39
Which three of these Metro service types map to E-Line (versus E-LAN) services that are defined by the Metro Ethernet Forum (MEF)? (Choose three.)

A.    Ethernet Private Line
B.    Ethernet Wire Service
C.    Ethernet Relay Service
D.    Ethernet Multipoint Service
E.    Ethernet Relay Multipoint Service

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 40
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)

A.    only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B.    only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C.    only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D.    only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E.    the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F.    the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses

Answer: AF

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QUESTION 21
There are 3 steps to confirm whether a range of IP addresses can be summarized. Which of the
following is used in each of these 3 steps?

A.    The first number in the contiguous block of addresses
B.    The last number in the contiguous block of addresses
C.    The size of the contiguous block of addresses
D.    The subnet mask of the original network address

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
A well-designed IP addressing scheme supporting role-based functions within the subnet will result in the most efficient use of which technology?

A.    Layer 3 switching in the core
B.    Network Admission Control (NAC)
C.    IP telephony (voice and video) services
D.    ACLs

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is true regarding the effect of EIGRP queries on the network design?

A.    EIGRP queries will be the most significant issue with respect to stability and convergence
B.    EIGRP queries are not a consideration as long as EIGRP has a feasible successor with a next hop AD
that is greater than the FD of the current successor route
C.    EIGRP queries will only increase the convergence time when there are no EIGRP stubs designed in
the network

Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is a result when designing multiple EIGRP autonomous systems within the Enterprise Campus network?

A.    Improves scalability by dividing the network using summary routes at AS boundaries
B.    Decreases complexity since EIGRP redistribution is automatically handled in the background
C.    Reduces the volume of EIGRP queries by limiting them to one EIGRP AS
D.    Scaling is improved when a unique AS is run at the Access, Distribution, and Core layers of the network

Answer: A

QUESTION 25
When designing the routing for an Enterprise Campus network it is important to keep which of the following route filtering aspects in mind?

A.    Filtering is only useful when combined with route summarization
B.    It is best to filter (allow) the default and summary prefixes only in the Enterprise Edge to remote sites
or site-to-site IPsec VPN networks
C.    IGPs (for example EIGRP or OSPF) are superior to route filtering in avoiding inappropriate transit traffic
through remote nodes or inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates
D.    The primary limitation of router filtering is that it can only be applied on outbound updates

Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which statement is the most accurate regarding IPsec VPN design for an Enterprise Campus environment?

A.    VPN device IP addressing must align with the existing Campus addressing scheme.
B.    The choice of a hub-and-spoke or meshed topology ultimately depends on the number of remotes.
C.    Sizing and selection of the IPsec VPN headend devices is most affected by the throughput bandwidth
requirements for the remote offices and home worker
D.    Scaling considerations such as headend configuration, routing protocol choice, and topology have the
broadest impact on the design.

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Nexus 1000V in the VMware vSphere solution effectively creates an additional access layer in the virtualized data center network; which of the following 1000V characteristics can the designer take advantage of?

image

A.    Offloads the STP requirement from the external Access layer switches
B.    If upstream access switches do not support vPC or VSS the dual-homed ESX host traffic can still be
distributed using virtual port channel host mode using subgroups automatically discovered through CDP
C.    Allows transit traffic to be forwarded through the ESX host between VMNICs
D.    Can be divided into multiple virtual device contexts for service integration, enhanced security, administrative
boundaries, and flexibility of deployment

Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which unique characteristics of the Data Center Aggregation layer must be considered by an Enterprise Campus designer?

A.    Layer 3 routing between the Access and Aggregation layers facilitates the ability to span VLANs across
multiple access switches, which is a requirement for many server virtualization and clustering technologies.
B.    "East-west" server-to-server traffic can travel between aggregation modules by way of the core, but backup
and replication traffic typically remains within an aggregation module.
C.    Load balancing, firewall services, and other network services are commonly integrated by the use of service
modules that are inserted in the aggregation switches.
D.    Virtualization tools allow a cost effective approach for redundancy in the network design by using two or four
VDCs from the same physical switch.

Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Support of vPC on the Cisco Nexus 5000 access switch enables various new design options for the data center Access layer, including which of the following?

A.    The vPC peer link is not required for Access layer control traffic, and can instead be used to span VLANs
across the vPC access switches
B.    A single switch can associate per-interface with more than one vPC domain
C.    vPC can be used on both sides of the MEC, allowing a unique 16-link EtherChannel to be built between
the access and aggregation switches
D.    Allows an EtherChannel between a server and a access switch while still maintaining the level of availability
that is associated with dual-homing a server to two different access switches

Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which technology is an example of the need for a designer to clearly define features and desired performance when designing advanced WAN services with a service provider?

A.    FHRP to remote branches
B.    Layer 3 MPLS VPNs secure routing
C.    Control protocols (for example Spanning Tree Protocol) for a Layer 3 MPLS service
D.    Intrusion prevention, QoS, and stateful firewall support network wide

Answer: B

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QUESTION 11
OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should be considered when utilizing OSPF stub areas? (Choose two)

A.    OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs
B.    OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization
C.    OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes
D.    OSPF totally stubby areas cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the area
E.    OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain

Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which two protocol characteristics should be most considered when designing a single unified fabric for the Data Center? (Choose two.)

A.    FCIP or FCoE allow for easier integration by using the Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP) and Fibre Channel framing
B.    iSCSI uses a special EtherType and an additional header containing additional control information
C.    FCIP and iSCSI has higher overhead than FCoE owing to TCP/IP
D.    FCoE was initially developed to be used as a switch-to-switch protocol, while FCIP is primarily meant to
be used as an access layer protocol to connect hosts and storage to a Fibre Channel SAN
E.    FCoE requires gateway functionality to integrate into an existing Fibre Channel network

Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Drag the best practice recommendation for an Enterprise Campus network on the left to the technology to which it most applies on the right.

image
Answer:

image 

QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop Questions

image
Answer:

image 

QUESTION 15
Drag and Drop Questions

image
Answer:

image 

QUESTION 16
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?

A.    FlexLinks
B.    loop-free U
C.    looped square
D.    looped triangle
E.    loop-free inverted U

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct?

A.    N_Port to N_Port connections use logical node connection points.
B.    Flow control is only provided by QoS.
C.    It must be implemented in an arbitrated loop.
D.    Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus.

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
In base e-Commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?

A.    core layer
B.    Internet boundary
C.    aggregation layer
D.    aggregation and core layers
E.    access and aggregation layers

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
The Cisco Nexus 1000V is intended to address which disadvantage of the VMware vSphere solution?

A.    Inability to deploy new functional servers without requiring physical changes on the network
B.    Complexity added by the requirement for an ESX host for each virtual machine
C.    Network administrators lack control of the access layer of the network
D.    To increase the number of physical infrastructure and the virtual machines that can be managed

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
With respect to address summarization, which of the following statements concerning IPv4 and IPv6 is true?

A.    The potential size of the IPv6 address blocks suggests that address summarization favors IPv6 over IPv4.
B.    Role based addressing using wildcard masks to match multiple subnets is suitable for IPv4, but unsuitable
for IPv6.
C.    In order to summarize, the number of subnets in the IPv4 address block should be a power of 2 while the
number of subnets in the IPv6 address block should be a power of 64.
D.    WAN link addressing best supports summarization with a /126 subnet for IPv4 and a /31 for IPv6.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an Enterprise Campus network?

A.    Because the IP phone is a three-port switch, IP telephony extends the network edge, impacting the
Distribution layer.
B.    Video and voice are alike in being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to
be lossless, and have minimized delay and jitter.
C.    IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security policies must be based on upper layer
traffic characteristics.
D.    Though multi-VLAN access ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Addressing QoS design in the Enterprise Campus network for IP Telephony applications means what?

A.    It is critical to identify aggregation and rate transition points in the network, where preferred traffic and
congestion QoS policies should be enforced
B.    Suspect traffic should be dropped closest to the source, to minimize wasting network resources
C.    An Edge traffic classification scheme should be mapped to the downstream queue configuration
D.    Applications and Traffic flows should be classified, marked and policed within the Enterprise Edge of the
Enterprise Campus network

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The requirement for high availability within the Data Center network may cause the designer to consider which one of the following solutions?

A.    Construct a hierarchical network design using EtherChannel between a server and two VDCs from the
same physical switch
B.    Utilize Cisco NSF with SSO to provide intrachassis SSO at Layers 2 to 4
C.    Define the Data Center as an OSPF NSSA area, advertising a default route into the DC and summarizing
the routes out of the NSSA to the Campus Core
D.    Implement network services for the Data Center as a separate services layer using an active/active model
that is more predictable in failure conditions

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When designing remote access to the Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile workers, which of the following should the designer consider?

A.    It is recommended to place the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge firewall, with
ingress traffic limited to SSL only
B.    Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an internal firewall drawn from a
headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment
C.    VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended when
the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place
D.    Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or thick), including
at Layer7

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three statements about firewall modes are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    A firewall in routed mode has one IP address.
B.    A firewall in transparent mode has one IP address.
C.    In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device.
D.    In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device.
E.    In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device.
F.    In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
Which two of these correctly describe asymmetric routing and firewalls? (Choose two.)

A.    only operational in routed mode
B.    only operational in transparent mode
C.    only eight interfaces can belong to an asymmetric routing group
D.    operational in both failover and non-failover configurations
E.    only operational when the firewall has been configured for failover

Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Which of the following two statements about Cisco NSF and SSO are the most relevant to the network designer? (Choose two.)

A.    You can reduce outages to 1 to 3 seconds by using SSO in a Layer 2 environment or Cisco NSF with
SSO in a Layer 3 environment.
B.    SSO and NSF each require the devices to either be graceful restart-capable or graceful restart- aware.
C.    In a fully redundant topology adding redundant supervisors with NSF and SSO may cause longer convergence
times than single supervisors with tuned IGP timers
D.    The primary deployment scenario for Cisco NSF with SSO is in the Distribution and Core layers.
E.    Cisco NSF-aware neighbor relationships are independent of any tuned IGP timers

Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following two are advantages of Server virtualization using VMware vSphere? (Choose two)

image

A.    Retains the one-to-one relationship between switch ports and functional servers
B.    Enables the live migration of a virtual server from one physical server to another without disruption to
users or loss of services
C.    The access layer of the network moves into the vSphere ESX servers, providing streamlined vSphere
management
D.    Provides management functions including the ability to run scripts and to install third-party agents for
hardware monitoring, backup, or systems management
E.    New functional servers can be deployed with minimal physical changes on the network

Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which of the following two are effective and simple means of employing route summarization within the Enterprise Campus network? (Choose two)

A.    A default route (0.0.0.0 /0) advertised dynamically into the rest of the network
B.    Route filtering to manage traffic flows in the network, avoid inappropriate transit traffic through remote
nodes, and provide a defense against inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates
C.    Use manual split horizon
D.    Use a structured hierarchical topology to control the propagation of EIGRP queries
E.    Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) stub areas

Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
From a design perspective which two of the following OSPF statements are most relevant? (Choose two)

A.    OSPF stub areas can be thought of as a simple form of summarization
B.    OSPF cannot filter intra-area routes
C.    An ABR can only exist in two areas – the backbone and one adjacent area
D.    Performance issues in the Backbone area can be offset by allowing some traffic to transit a non-backbone area
E.    The size of an area (the LSDB) will be constrained by the size of the IP MTU

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 51
To deploy new software or upgrade the software on the Media Server, which management tool should be used?

A.    System Manager (SMGR)
B.    Element Manager (EM)
C.    Provisioning Manager (PROV)
D.    Session Manager (SM)

Answer: B

QUESTION 52
For video bandwidth optimization, which two Factors determine whether SVC video thinning should apply? (Choose two)

A.    Whether the conference is locked or not
B.    The priority of the user
C.    The role of the user (e.g., moderator, presenter, participant)
D.    The high and critical threshold for the locations

Answer: BD

QUESTION 53
The IP address of your DCS is 135.35.35.88.
Which URL is used when testing to see if the DCS is running?

A.    http://135.35.35.88.8080/
B.    http://135.35.35.88:8083/
C.    http://135.35.35.88:12120/
D.    http://135.35.35.88:12121/

Answer: A

QUESTION 54
Which statement is true about SIP calls made into an Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 Conference Bridge?

A.    SIP signaling is established between Session Manager and the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7
conference bridge.
B.    SIP call signaling must originate from Communication Manager.
C.    SIP signaling and media call legs are established between Session Manager and Avaya Aura®
Conferencing 7.
D.    SIP signaling is established directly from End Device and the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7
conference bridge.

Answer: C

QUESTION 55
After you have defined the Media Servers that make up the Media Server Cluster, what are the next two configuration parameters you need to define for the Media Server Cluster? (Choose two)

A.    Assign the media Server to the Application Server
B.    The serving locations of the Media Server Cluster
C.    The physical location of the Media Server Cluster
D.    Add the IP address of the Media Server to the Session Manager

Answer: AD

QUESTION 56
In Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7, which two options can be defined in the Conference Class of Service? (Choose two)

A.    Video Class of Service for this conference class.
B.    Allow dial out to participants
C.    Media Server Clusters that can host this conference
D.    The number to call when operator assistance is required
E.    Media Cascading options for this conference class

Answer: BD
QUESTION 57
You are installing the DCS server and need to get a copy of the software. Which directory on the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 server will you find the software you need?

A.    /var/mcp/extract/MCP_xxx/dcs
B.    /var/mcp/os/install/MCP_xxx/dcs
C.    /var/mcp/loads/MCP_xxx/dcs
D.    /var/mcp/install/MCP_xxx/dcs

Answer: B

QUESTION 58
On Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 in a Distributed media Server deployment, the Media Cascading feature id efficiently used during conference between two locations. In this situations, which statement is correct?

A.    Media Cascading allows easy failover of Media Server between two Media Cluster locations.
B.    Media Cascading allows easy failover of Media Server between two Media Cluster locations.
C.    Media cascading conserves media network bandwidth by establishing single Media Cascading
linking between two Media Cluster locations for a single conference.
D.    Media Cascading link is special media link between two locations, which is established and available
readily all the time to be used by any conference.

Answer: C

QUESTION 59
What is used to view the current number of active conferences?

A.    Monitoring and Reporting
B.    SNMP Browser
C.    Log Browser
D.    Alarm Browser

Answer: A

QUESTION 60
When adding a new Media Server, where is it enabled?

A.    Feature Server Elements – Provisioning Manager – PROV – MediaServer (X) – NE Maintenance
B.    Servers – EMserver(x) NE Maintenance
C.    Feature Server Elements – Media Servers and clusters – Media Servers – MediaServerCluster(X) –
NE Maintenance
D.    Feature Server Elements – Media Servers and Clusters – Media Servers – MediaServer(X) –
NE maintenence

Answer: C

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QUESTION 41
In a Standalone Redundant Deployment, which two statements are true? (Choose two)

A.    All components (except DCS) are co resident on two servers.
B.    Active/Standby redundancy with an additional Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 Application Server.
C.    Components are split between multiple servers.
D.    This is not a supported deployment.

Answer: B

QUESTION 42
A customer wants a conferencing system that will provide Meet-Me conferencing and web collaboration in a redundant conferencing for 3000 users, in the smallest footprint. They also want the option to use either G.711 or G.729 audio codec. Which Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 implementation will meet their requirements?

A.    Standalone simplex
B.    Co-resident
C.    Standalone
D.    Co-resident simplex

Answer: B

QUESTION 43
You try to use the Get Template button on the System Manager Conferencing Profile window, but are unsuccessful. Which three should you check to fix the problem? (Choose three.)

A.    Verify the enrollment password was used to create a valid certificate.
B.    Verify the Element Manager certificate is enabled.
C.    Verify the Provisioning Manager certificate is enabled.
D.    Verify the System Manager certificate is enabled.
E.    Verify the TLS Transport is enabled.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 44
On the Web Conferencing server, the moderator is able to upload .JPG or .BMP picture files to the web conferencing library, and is also able to share them. Bur when trying to upload PowerPoint presentations or Word documents, the upload button on the library window in the web conference is grayed out or inactive. What is causing problem?

A.    The URL used to log into web conferencing is incorrect.
B.    The Doc server is up running with firewall issues between any Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 servers.
C.    The Doc server is running with no firewall issues between any Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 servers,
but not yet configured on provisioning manager.
D.    The Web Conferencing server URL is not matching with what is configured on the provisioning manager.

Answer: B

QUESTION 45
A technician needs to change a network element IP address. What is the first thing that needs to be done to make this change?

A.    Reverse the deployment of the network element.
B.    Apply the change to the network element.
C.    Stop the network element.
D.    Delete the network element instance.

Answer: C

QUESTION 46
You are adding a new Media Server to an Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system. After you have installed the Media Server hardware, and installed the application software on the platform, what is the next configuration step you must take to start integrating the media Server into your Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system?

A.    Define the serving location of this Media Server in PROV.
B.    Define the IP address and server name of this Media Server in EM.
C.    Define the physical location of this Media Server in PROV.
D.    Define whether the Media Server is used for event conference in PROV.

Answer: B

QUESTION 47
In /var/mcp/oss/acct/AM1/All/MCPV5/AS1_0, which extension do the most recent log files have?

A.    Active
B.    Closed
C.    Current
D.    Live

Answer: A

QUESTION 48
In Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7, which two options can be defined in the Video Class of Service? (Choose two)

A.    The SVC video class
B.    The minimum user priority
C.    The maximum average bandwidth
D.    The codec class

Answer: CD
Explanation:
http://198.152.212.23/css/P8/documents/100164163 (page 89 and 90)

QUESTION 49
Which two procedures about location related roles are performed by Avaya Aura® Session Manager? (Choose two)

A.    Manage bandwidth allocation for a location.
B.    Identify the physical location of the user dialing into the conference.
C.    Identify the physical location of the serving Media Server.
D.    Choose the location where the conference should be held.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 50
Which two configuration factors are critical for Call Admission Control for Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7? (Choose two)

A.    Overall managed bandwidth for locations
B.    Maximum bandwidth per participant in the video class service
C.    Session Manager(s) for bandwidth management
D.    Per call bandwidth parameters for locations

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 31
Which three are options for viewing historical data under Reports and Monitors? (Choose three)

A.    Last hour
B.    Last 24 hours
C.    Last 30 days
D.    Last six months
E.    Last year

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
http://198.152.212.23/css/P8/documents/100164164 (page 45)

QUESTION 32
Where can the alert threshold settings for the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 be modified?

A.    Monitoring and Reporting
B.    Key Performance Indicators
C.    OAM Profiles
D.    Feature Server Elements

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. On Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7, where can the information on Media Server Sessions be found?

image

A.    Log into Provisioning Manger, and see media resources option.
B.    Log into Web Conferencing Server, and download from Document Library.
C.    Log into Element Manager Console, under Media Servers and cluster tree expand Media Server
for the options.
D.    Log into Doc Server and download.

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
To pull reports on all currently active and past SIP session information on an Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 bridge, which action can an Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 administrator or maintenance person perform?

A.    Log into EM console, expand the Feature Server Elements tree, and look under the Media Servers
and Cluster tree options.
B.    Log into EM console, expand the Feature Server Elements tree, and look under the Database
tree options.
C.    Log into EM console, expand the Features Server Elements tree, and look under the Accounting
Managers tree options.
D.    Log into EM console, expand the key Performance Indicators tree, and look under the Monitoring
and Reporting.

Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. On a bridge using the Key Performance Indicator (KPI) Monitoring and Reporting option, where is the information on Media Network Bandwidth Usage for currently Active Calls located?

image

A.    Under the Locations TAB
B.    Under the General TAB
C.    Under the Sessions TAB
D.    Under the Web Conferencing TAB

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which two statements about Active and Hot Standby servers are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Active and Hot Standby Servers will have two different IP addresses.
B.    Active and Hot Standby Servers will have the same IP address.
C.    The Application Server will have the same IP address for both servers.
D.    The Application Server will have two different IP addresses.

Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Where can you Stop/Start the media Server and see the current status in Element Manager Console?

A.    Servers – EMServer (X) – NE Maintenance
B.    Feature Server Elements – Media Servers and Clusters – Media Servers – MediaServer(x) – NE Maintenance
C.    Feature Server Elements – media Servers and Media Servers – MediaServerCluster(X) – NE Maintenance
D.    Feature Server Elements – Provisioning manager – PROV(X) – MediaServer(X) – NE Maintenance

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://198.152.212.23/css/P8/documents/100164163 (page 207)

QUESTION 38
When viewing alarms in the browser, what is the default order that alarms appear?

A.    Warning, Minor, Major, Critical
B.    Major, Critical, Minor, Warning
C.    Minor, Warning, Critical, Major
D.    Critical, Major, Minor, Warning

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://198.152.212.23/css/P8/documents/100164163 (page 18, see alarm summary bar)

QUESTION 39
You downloaded the following from PLDS:
MCP_15.0.10.4_2012-06-08-1605.zip.
The Element Manager Console indicates the client bridge is running version MCP_15.0.10.1_2012- 02-25-1355.
Which command will install this file?

A.    patchPlatform.p1
B.    mcpUpgradeMR.p1
C.    mcpPatch.p1
D.    mcpRelease.p1

Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Avaya Aura?Midsize Enterprise, Avaya Aura?Communication Manager, Avaya Aura® Session Manager, and Avaya Aura?System Manager and communication Server 1000, are all supported audio and video servers. What is the minimum software version of Avaya Aura?System Manager that is required with Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system?

A.    Version 6.1
B.    Version 6.2
C.    Version 7.0
D.    Version 7.2

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
An end user wants to dial into the bridge with the DNIS number, and be connected into the conference room, or be prompted to enter the conference pin code. Which action is necessary to configure the conference bridge dial-in number (DNIS or Calls Branding)?

A.    Log on to Element Manager Console and configure it under media Server.
B.    Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure it under Service URI.
C.    Log on to Collaboration Agent and configure it in the roster window.
D.    Log on to Provisioning manager and configure it under management.

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
In /var/mcp/oss/acct/AM1/All/MCPV5/AS1_0, which extension do the most recent log files have?

A.    Active
B.    Closed
C.    Current
D.    Live

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What does the install script do during installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software?

A.    It prompts you to enter the serial number of the server on which you are installing the software.
B.    It auto-detects the hardware type of the server.
C.    It lists the choices of different hardware types that can be used.
D.    It lists the choices of different operating systems that can be used.

Answer: B

QUESTION 24
To setup a conference call on Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7, which three tasks are required? (Choose three)

A.    Configure the domain, location, Media Server, and service URI on Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7.
B.    Configure the user’s soft client on their PC.
C.    Configure a SIP entity, SIP entity link, routing policy, and dial pattern on System Manager.
D.    Configure users on System Manager to have a conferencing profile.
E.    Configure TLS between Avaya Session Manager and the Media Server.

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 25
During a web conference, which two functionalities can a moderator use with DCS not running? (Choose two)

A.    Upload and share a .JPG picture, Word, and PowerPoint documents.
B.    Perform chat, and record meeting notes.
C.    Share full or part of the Moderator Desktop.
D.    Pass remote desktop control to other participants.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 26
When configuring a SIP Entity for Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7, which two fields are used by the system Manager to enable communication with other SIP Entities? (Choose two)

A.    Trusted
B.    Port
C.    Transport protocol
D.    Name

Answer: BD

QUESTION 27
What is the script that is used to install Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software?

A.    pkginstall
B.    accInstaller
C.    mcpInstaller
D.    Installmcp

Answer: C

QUESTION 28
An administrator has a new license file for Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7. Which step should the administrator take to install the new license file?

A.    Log onto the Communications Manager CDOM, then go to license and copy and paste the new
license file.
B.    Log onto the Conferencing 7, then go to Element Manager and upload the new license file.
C.    Log onto System Manager, then go to License and upload the new license file.
D.    Log onto the System Manager CDOM, then go to Security and copy and paste the new license file.

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
To have a trust relationship between Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 and System Manager, what must an administrator make in Element Manager?

A.    An enrollment request for EM and PROV, and then add the HTTPS certificate to the EM and PROV elements
B.    An enablement TLS for all the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP entities
C.    An enablement TLS for all the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 elements
D.    An enablement request for CA and PROV, and then the HTTPS certificate to the CA and PROV elements

Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A moderator would like to reuse PowerPoint slides that were previously presented on another web conference. Which procedure does the moderator need to perform?

A.    Upload the PowerPoint slides to the web conference Document Library from a web conference
participant’s PC workstation.
B.    Download the PowerPoint slides from the Document Conversion Server into the moderator’s PC,
and share the desktop.
C.    Selects one of the old PowerPoint Slide available readily from the moderator’s Document Server
Library on the web conference, and share it.
D.    The moderator realizes no PowerPoint slides are available in the Library on the web conference,
and decides to restart the PC to fix the issue.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
Which two parameters can be defined for a location using Provisioning Manager? (Choose tw0)

A.    an alternate hosting location if the location is not suitable for hosting conferences
B.    maximum WAN bandwidth allowed for the location
C.    Media Cascading options for the location
D.    Time zone for the location

Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
A technician wants to configure security between Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 and System Manager.
What is the first step in configuring security?

A.    Log onto Element Manager and set the session password.
B.    Log onto Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 and set the enrollment password.
C.    Log onto System Manager and set the enrollment password.
D.    Log onto System Manager and set the session password.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
During installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software, which prompt will the installer receive?

A.    The staging username
B.    The deployment type or staging file to be used
C.    The operations file be used
D.    The operations file or deployment name to be used

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
When installing the operating system for Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7, and having turned on the hardware, what must the administrator do to start the installation?

A.    At the boot prompt type start install
B.    At the boot prompt press the Enter key.
C.    At the boot prompt type install-kvm and press the Enter key.
D.    At the boot prompt type install-mcp and press the Enter key.

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
The conferencing moderator dialed into the conference room successfully using moderator code, and was also able to successfully launch Collaboration Agent. However, the web conference could not be launched from the Collaboration Agent. What is causing this problem?

A.    During the conference user provisioning, the conference administrator did not enable the Web
Conferencing Server feature specific to this user.
B.    The web conferencing URL was not added to the hosts file on the Media Server.
C.    The Web Conference Server Was not added or configured in Provisioning manager.
D.    The Document Conversation Server was not configured.

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which SIP Monitoring field must be selected to allow the System Manager to manage bandwidth on the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP Entity?

A.    SIP Link Monitoring
B.    Supports Call Admission Control
C.    Primary Session Manager Bandwidth Association
D.    SIP Domain

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A technician is installing Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 for the first time, and has acquired the proper hardware needed for the system installation. What would be the next step in the installation?

A.    Install Windows 2003.
B.    Install off the shell Red Hat Linux.
C.    Install Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 Core Linux Platform.
D.    Install the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software.

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 operating system is installed, it creates pre-configured users with a default password. What must an administrator complete after the installation?

A.    Change the passwords on first login.
B.    Change the admin password only.
C.    Change the admin and root passwords.
D.    Change the root password only.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
On the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system, which two actions are involved in configuring the Media Server and Media Server cluster? (Choose two)

A.    Log onto Provisioning Manager and configure it under "Conference of Service".
B.    Log onto the EM console, and configure it in the sub menu "Media Server Resource" under the Feature
Server Elements.
C.    Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure "Media Server Resource" under System Management Tab.
D.    Log onto WCS server and configure the Media Resource in the Collaboration Agent window.

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What is the License file for Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 based on?

A.    The Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 MAC address
B.    The MAC address of the Session manager with which Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 is associated
C.    The MAC address of the System manager with which Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 associated
D.    The Media Server Mac address

Answer: A

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