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BCS Intermediate certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data: BH0-011 Exam
BH0-011 Questions & Answers
Exam Code: BH0-011
Exam Name: BCS Intermediate certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data
Q & A: 62 Q&As

1.Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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Intermediate Certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data centres: EUCOC Exam
EUCOC Questions & Answers
Exam Code: EUCOC
Exam Name: Intermediate Certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data centres
Q & A: 62 Q&As

1.Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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640-822 Questions & Answers

Exam Code: 640-822

Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1)

Q & A: 353 Q&As 

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What is needed to allow host A to ping host B?
A. a straight-through cable connecting the switches
B. a crossover cable connecting the switches
C. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
D. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with straight-through cables
E. a backbone switch connecting the switches with either fiber optic or straight-through cables
Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Hotspot question. Click on the correct location or locations in the exhibit.
Answer: 172.16.236.4
All 5 questions.
PS: You can see the Comprehensive Question Description & Topology and Answer
& Explanation From Full Version.
QUESTION 3
Host A needs to communicate with the email server shown in the graphic. What address will be
placed in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?A. the MAC address of Host A
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the MAC address of E0 of the router
D. the MAC address of E1 of the router
E. the MAC address of Switch 2
F. the MAC address of the email server
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP settings have recently been changed on the DHCP server and the
client is no longer able to reach network resources. What should be done to correct this situation?
A. Verify that the DNS server address is correct in the DHCP pool.
B. Ping the default gateway to populate the ARP cache.
C. Use the tracert command on the DHCP client to first determine where the problem is located.
D. Clear all DHCP leases on the router to prevent address conflicts.
E. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.
Answer: E

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Storage Management Specialist Exam: E20-580 Exam

  • E20-580 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-580
  • Exam Name: Storage Management Specialist Exam
  • Q & A: 126 Q&As

1: What are two [2] features of ControlCenter SAN Manager?
A.Ability to run ControlCenter in a secure fabric for DATA, Cisco and Brocade fabrics
B.Discovery and monitoring of storage networks and their components to detect and respond to error conditions
C.Assisted Discovery feature to assist ControlCenter agents that do not perform automated discovery of switches
D.Ability to manage and zone DATA/Connectrix, Brocade, QLogic and Cisco switches, as well as mixed fabrics, including the ability to import active/inactive zoning elements during discovery
Correct Answers: B C

2: A User creates a temporary file that causes the free space on a volume to drop below a trigger value. As the storage admin you may want to know about the condition only if the free space remains low for several hours and not when it temporarily dips. How do you implement this through ControlCenter?
A.Disable Severity level
B.Disable Alert Definition
C.Change severity thresholds
D.Change the efore settings
Correct Answers: D

3: Click the Exhibit button.
On the Alerts View shown, the storage administrator has received several alerts from ControlCenter regarding the power subsystem on Symmetrix 000183600408.  Which action was taken?

A.A note was attached
B.The alert was cleared
C.An autofix was executed
D.The severity level changed to 4
Correct Answers: A

4: Click the Task button.
Match the minimum requirements to each switch discovery.
Correct Answers:

5: What are the two [2] main report categories in the StorageScope main screen?
A.Chargeback
B.Infrastructure
C.Billed customers
D.Allocated storage
E.Service consumers
Correct Answers: B E

6: In a Fibre Channel switched environment, which two [2] activities should you perform after completing an SDR operation? Assume that zoning is already configured.
A.Perform LUN masking
B.Set the new device state to pot Ready
C.Set the new device state to “Write Disabled”
D.Reconfigure the hosts to recognize the new devices that are available for access
Correct Answers: A D

7: Which three [3] items can be configured in a VisualSRM Report Job?
A.List of Reports
B.Report output format
C.Threshold trigger levels
D.Data gathering schedule
E.Report generation schedule
Correct Answers: A B E

8: Which UNIX host software component is required to support push-install of the VisualSRM Agent?
A.Perl
B.Secure Shell (ssh)
C.Java (version 1.4 or above)
D.File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Correct Answers: B

9: The CIO wants you to create a Windows 2000 server storage allocation report.  Your default server allocation report includes all server types (Windows 2000, AIX, Solaris).  How would you create a Windows 2000 only report?
A.Highlight all Windows 2000 servers and launch StorageScope reports
B.Run All Host reports with a filtering on the Operation Systems Column that excludes “AIX” servers
C.Create a filter that contains “Windows 2000” in the Operating System Column in your All Host reports.
D.From the StorageScope Home Page select the Operating Systems Report, then create a filter on the Operating System Column that equals Windows 2000
Correct Answers: C

10: Click the Exhibit button.
On the sample Enterprise Storage window shown, what does the capital “U” icon next to Host “UNIX2” indicate?

A.Undefined
B.Unavailable
C.Unmanaged
D.Unreachable
Correct Answers: C

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Networked Storage – SAN Specialist Exam: E20-530 Exam

  • E20-530 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-530
  • Exam Name: Networked Storage – SAN Specialist Exam
  • Q & A: 122 Q&As

1: What is the recommended minimum amount of memory in a management station for an EMC VisualSAN 4.0 installation in a mid-sized SAN?
A.256 MB
B.512 MB
C.1 GB
D.2 GB
Correct Answers: C

2: Which describes the non-blocking architecture deployed in M-series switches?
A.Allows frames to be sent to destination ports based on the receiving ports availability
B.Switch operations which move data across the bus into CMM and finally to MPC for delivery
C.Memory based operations which fence partitions of memory into bit-buckets for data delivery
D.Allows memory segmentation across the s/bar platform permitting data re-direction based on ASIC availability
Correct Answers: A

3: Which native command on a B-series switch will provide data for EMC Customer Service?
A.showtech
B.supportshow
C.supportlogs
D.switchsupport
Correct Answers: B

4: Which is an EMC recommended best practice when doing fabric zoning?
A.Single FA zoning
B.Multiple FA zoning
C.Single HBA zoning
D.Multiple HBA zoning
Correct Answers: C

5: Which option is used to prevent mirroring at the host level if the device is already mirrored at the storage level in a PowerPath Volume Manager 4.x environment?
A.HW_MIRRORS_ON_REDUNDANT_SW_POLICY
B.NO_MIRRORS_ON_REDUNDANT_HW_POLICY
C.SW_MIRRORS_ON_REDUNDANT_HW_POLICY
D.DISABLE_MIRRORS_ON_REDUNDANT_HW_POLICY
Correct Answers: C

6: A customer cannot discover his Brocade switches within ControlCenter. Which command must be run on the switch to resolve this?
A.snmpshow
B.configure
C.agtcfgset
D.snmpmibcapset
Correct Answers: D

7: Which CLI command is used for Device Masking?
A.fzone
B.symcfg
C.symmask
D.symconfig
Correct Answers: C

8: Which two [2] components are required to use SAN Manager?
A.NAS Agent
B.FCC Agent
C.SDM Agent
D.SAN Manager license
Correct Answers: C D

9: Which Cisco tool is used to monitor, configure and manage multiple MDS switches?
A.Device Tools
B.SAN Manager
C.Fabric Manager
D.Connectrix Manager
Correct Answers: C

10: From Connectrix Manager, which two [2] levels of user rights can be assigned to specific users?
A.Fabric Administrator
B.System Administrator
C.Product Administrator
D.Configuration Administrator
Correct Answers: B C

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Content Management Application Architecture Exam: E20-485 Exam

  • E20-485 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-485
  • Exam Name: Content Management Application Architecture Exam
  • Q & A: 81 Q&As

1. Which EMC product is used to convert the text print stream into PDF format, extract the metadata, and ingest the content into Documentum Repository?
A. Document Transformation Services
B. Import Manager
C. Archive Services Reports (ASR)
D. Bulk Loader
Answer: C

2. In addition to Digital Asset Manager (DAM), which client products are part of the Interactive Content Management Solution?
A. Web Publisher (WP), File Share Services (FSS)
B. Webtop, File Share Services (FSS)
C. Webtop, TaskSpace
D. TaskSpace, File Share Services (FSS)
Answer: A

3. In addition to Content Server, which server products are typically used for Interactive Content
Management Solutions?
A. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
B. Document Transformation Services (DTS), Records Manager (RM)
C. Media Transformation Services (MTS), Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)
D. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Site Caching Services (SCS)
Answer: D

4. You are building a solution to automate a Grants Management Process. Your workflow involves searching documents in an external non-Documentum Repository. You also need to generate a graphical report on auto activities.
Which EMC product combination achieves this?
A. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), TaskSpace
B. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor(BAM), Webtop
C. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
D. Workflow Manager, Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
Answer: C

5. You have integrated Documentum Repository with Microsoft Exchange Server. You have been asked to reduce storage costs by using content compression and de-duplication.
Which EMC solution meets these requirements?
A. Content Services for EMC Centera and Content Storage Service (CSS)
B. Content Storage Service (CSS) and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Documentum Client for Outlook (DCO) and Content Services for EMC Centera
D. High Volume Server and Archive Services for Email
Answer: A

6. In addition to Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM) and Records Manager (RM), which products contain a user interface and are part of the compliance and archiving products suite offered by Documentum?
A. only Retention Policy Services (RPS)
B. Retention Policy Services (RPS) and Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
C. Content Storage Services (CSS)
D. only Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
Answer: A

7. A new Documentum customer without any experience with Content Management systems has decided to purchase Documentum for its out-of-the-box functionality. They have general requirements for their users to have web access to basic content storage, library services, full-text search, and workflow.
Besides Content Server and Index Server, at a minimum, which solution would meet this customer’s requirements?
A. Webtop only
B. Webtop and Process Suite
C. Process Suite only
D. TaskSpace and Process Suite
Answer: A

8. An insurance company has standardized the client desktop on the Microsoft Office platform. The company designed a claim Documentum workflow on Microsoft Word documents. The workflow needs to be manually initiated by the user. Users would prefer a more integrated solution so that they do not need to launch multiple applications to start a workflow.
Which product meets these requirements?
A. Webtop
B. Application Connectors
C. Process Integrator
D. Web Development Kit (WDK) applications
Answer: B

9. A company has a requirement to develop an application to manage a group of documents in a folder through a business process. As the folder progresses, the different document types in that folder change security based on status, their type, as well as the values of different attributes for those different types.
They are deciding whether to use Documentum workflow or an external workflow system.
Which type of configuration or customization will support the functionality without committing to using Documentum versus a third-party workflow tool?
A. policy configuration only
B. policy configuration plus customization
C. process configuration only
D. process configuration plus customization
Answer: B

10. A customer has an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system with a series of web services built for integration with existing financial and other enterprise systems. They want to add Documentum as their Enterprise Content Management System. They prefer to minimize the number of necessary user
interfaces and want to make it so users ultimately do not need a Documentum interface. You recommend a phased approach to integration with some initial user interface.
Which options and products meet the customer’s needs?
A. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and High Volume Server (HVS)
B. Phase 1 Content Server and High Volume Server (HVS) Phase 2 Documentum Foundation
Classes/Business Objects Foundation and Business Process Services (BPS)
C. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and TaskSpace
D. Phase 1 Content Server and Business Process Services (BPS) Phase 2 TaskSpace and Process Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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Content Management Systems Architecture Exam: E20-475 Exam

  • E20-475 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-475
  • Exam Name: Content Management Systems Architecture Exam
  • Q & A: 93 Q&As

1. A client wants to upgrade their Documentum system from 5.3 SP3 to D6, but does not have the resources to upgrade and test web applications such as Webtop and Content Server components within a single downtime window. The client asks whether the upgrade can be phased, and if so which components should be upgraded first.
What is the correct response to the customer’s question?
A. Web applications must be upgraded before the Content Server.
B. Web applications must be upgraded after the Content Server is upgraded.
C. Web applications may be upgraded before or after the Content Server is upgraded.
D. Web applications do not need to be upgraded to make use of D6 features.
Answer: C

2. After an upgrade from a pre 5.3 version to 5.3 or 6, what can you do to remove the Verity Full-text Index components?
A. You delete the Verity Full-text Index components via Documentum Administrator after the upgrade.
B. The Content Server upgrade procedure deletes the Full-text. Just the empty/fulltext/Verity directory needs to be deleted in the DOCUMENTUM directory.
C. You do not delete the Verity Full-text Index. The new Fast Full-text installation needs the data for migration.
D. You delete the Documentum type dmi_tdk_index and the Full-text data in DOCUMENTUM/data directory.
Answer: B

3. In addition to core software upgrade considerations, which component of a Documentum system are most likely to require additional work?
A. software use cases
B. network topology
C. data center architecture
D. application customizations
Answer: D

4. Which Application Server does D6 Content Server install for its internal use?
A. BEA Weblogic
B. Oracle AS
C. Apache Tomcat
D. IBM WebSphere
Answer: A

5. Which is a supported path for upgrading a Content Server to D6?
A. 4i > 5.2.5 > 6
B. 5.2 > 5.2.5 > 6
C. 4i > 5.3 > 6
D. 5.2.5 > 5.3 > 6
Answer: D

6. What is the proper sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Document Transformation Services (DTS)?
A. uninstall Content Server
uninstall DTS
install Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
B. remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS upgrade Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
C. upgrade Content Server
remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
D. remove DTS Support from repository
upgrade Content Server
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
Answer: B

7. What is the correct sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Full-text Index Server?
A. uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents upgrade Content Server install Index Agents install Full-text Index Server
B. upgrade Content Server uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents install Index Agents install Full-text Index Server
C. delete Index Agents uninstall Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Full-text Index Server install Index Agents
D. delete Index Agents upgrade Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Index Agents
Answer: C

8. You are planning the upgrade of your Content Server software with Branch Office Caching Service (BOCS) on a remote site. The repository has approximately one million objects with 400 GB of content and 350 GB of full-text indexes. The BOCS cache has 20 GB of content.
What must be backed up before starting with the upgrade?
A. content, full-text index, and database
B. content, full-text index, and BOCS cache
C. full-text index, database, and BOCS cache
D. content, database, and BOCS cache
Answer: A

9. What is required for using Business Object Framework 2 (BOF 2)?
A. a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers
B. a DBOR.properties and a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers and a global registry repository
C. a DBOR.properties file on all client machines and a global registry repository
D. a global registry repository and a dfc.properties file on all client machines
Answer: D

10. Which file replaces the pre-D6 dmcl.ini?
A. dfc.properties
B. docbroker.ini
C. java.ini
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

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VNX Solutions Design Exam for Technology Architects: E20-324 Exam

  • E20-324 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-324
  • Exam Name: VNX Solutions Design Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 65 Q&As

QUESTION 1
You are doing performance analysis on a VNX5100 that is configured with three virtual pools. You determine that FAST Cache would benefit overall performance. Why are you unable to configure FAST Cache on the array?
A.    Virtual pools have already been enabled
B.    Cachedmemory needs to be enabled
C.    Cache memory needs to be disabled
D.    Engineering model is required to enable FAST Cache
Answer: B

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VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects: E20-545 Exam

  • E20-545 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-545
  • Exam Name: VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 116 Q&As

QUESTION 1
You are proposing a storage solution using a VNX system. What will you tell the storage administrator about the default setting for VNX IP address filtering?
A.    Access is limited to a single Unisphere client.
B.    IP address filtering does not restrict any access.
C.    IP address filtering is not installed by default.
D.    IP address filtering prevents all communications until the VNX system is configured.
Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which protocol does VNX support for encrypted network management activities?
A.    SSH
B.    PKI
C.    IPSec
D.    LDAP
Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In order to ensure that role-based access is enforced, the VNX storage domain has implemented two administrative groups called Auditors and Storage Admins. One of the administrators is a member of both groups. What access to objects will that administrator inherit?
A.    The least restrictive privilege established by the two groups
B.    The most restrictive privilege established by the two groups
C.    The first group that the administrator joined
D.    The last group that the administrator joined
Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are supporting a customer whose VNX hostname has recently changed. Immediately after this change, the VNX administrators begin to receive certificate errors when they attempt to connect to the array. You need to advise them on how to regenerate the Control Station’s certificate authority and web server certificates.
Which command should be used?
A.    server_certificate
B.    server_security
C.    nas_ca_certificate
D.    nas_license
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A.    2048 bits
B.    1024 bits
C.    2048 bytes
D.    1024 bytes
Answer: A

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Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects: E20-816 Exam

  • E20-816 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-816
  • Exam Name: Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 141 Q&As

1.The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source data for testing purposes. The snap would be kept for 8 hours. How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution?
A. Sum report with a reset of 4 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: D

2.The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source data for testing purposes with a 16-hour RPO.
How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution.?
A. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Sum report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: B

3.A customer wants to migrate from DMX-3 with 5772 to DMX-4 with 5773 code. They are using
TimeFinder/Clone every night for backup processing with synchronous COFW. TimeFinder/Clone with 5773 allows them to use a new feature called asynchronous COFW.
How many back-end operations does TimeFinder/Clone make with Enginuity 5773 using Aynchronous COFW compared with TimeFinder/Clone with Enginuity 5772?
A. Back-end operations are lower with 5773 Enginuity.
B. Back-end operations are the same in both Enginuity versions.
C. Back-end operations are higher with 5773 Enginuity.
D. Depends on disk speed and RAID protection.
Answer: B

4.A company has a Symmetrix V-Max array in an open systems environment. They want to use
TimeFinder/Snap to create a single copy per day of a production environment containing 200 volumes of 8 GB each. Twenty-five percent of the total I/O in the application is write activity.
What is the amount of physical storage required for all VDEVs?
A. 50 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 0 GB
Answer: D

5.What are the key differences between SIRT in 5772 and SIRT in Symmetrix V-Max with 5874?
A. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT > 115 microsec
B. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 64 KB or RTT threshold > 520 microsec
C. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT < 115 microsec
D. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 128 KB or if RTT < 115 microsec
Answer: A

6.The customer wants to replace the three DMX 2000s with a single Symmetrix V-Max using Open Replicator hot pull for the move. What sequence of steps should be taken to get ready for the copy sessions?
LUN Masking of DMX 2000 remote volumes to the V-Max FA ports.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via the same fabric or SAN extension.
FA ports of V-Max are zoned to FA ports of the three DMX 2000s.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via point-to-point or FC-AL.
LUN Masking of the V-Max control volumes to the DMX 2000 FA ports.
All V-Max FAs have access to the DMX 2000 volumes being migrated.
A. 4,6,1,3
B. 4,3,5,6
C. 2,3,1,6
D. 2,3,5,6
Answer: C

7.A customer’s application is stored on a DMX-4. The application runs 24x7x365. They would like to send consistent replicas of this data simultaneously to four branch offices on a nightly basis. The branch offices have CLARiiON arrays.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. Use TimeFinder/Mirror to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data from the BCVs to the remote offices.
B. Use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
C. Use Open Replicator hot push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
D. Use TimeFinder/Snap to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data on the VDEVs to the remote offices.
Answer: A

8.An Open Replicator data migration from a HDS to Symmetrix array is being proposed. The customer has the following requirements: Application downtime should be minimal and Open Replicator session failure must not result in data loss
Which solution will meet the customer’s requirements?
A. Cold pull with precopy
B. Cold pull with donor update
C. Hot pull with donor update
D. Hot pull with precopy
Answer: C

9.A customer has a single V-Max and you are helping to design a new SRDF solution. This customer wants to replicate all its data with SRDF over a Gigabit Ethernet.
In order to get the maximum benefit from scaling, what is the most important consideration?
A. All GigE ports on the source should be able to see all GigE ports on the target array
B. Ports must have auto-negotiation off because we don’t support Jumbo Frames
C. Speed limit value in the Symmetrix configuration file (not persistent)
D. Speed limits can be set on GigE ports from 100 to 10000 Mb (megabits)
Answer: A

10.Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
SRDF/S over Fibre Channel has been configured between two V-Max arrays that are 50 kilometers apart.
What is the expected write response time delay due to latency?
A. 0.25 ms
B. 0.5 ms
C. 1 ms
D. 2 ms
Answer: C

11.A customer is migrating their Windows 2008 servers from HP storage to EMC V-Max storage.
Host-based performance metrics need to be used to design a configuration. EMC recommends the diskperf -Y command to enable I/O statics in every server.
Why is enabling disk statistics collection recommended?
A. It improves performance of the servers
B. Otherwise, a reboot will be required to activate
C. Otherwise, you must start Performance Monitor
D. Because Windows 2008 leaves the default value to off
Answer: B

12.The customer has a DMX-4 replicating to another DMX-4 (microcode level 5773 for both) over an SRDF/S session between two sites 20 km apart and wants to understand the limitation (if any) of using the Single Round Trip (SiRT) feature on RF directors. What is the applicable limitation of the setup?
A. SiRT only works for an I/O size of less than 32 KB.
B. SiRT is enabled for all block sizes.
C. SiRT would not work because the distance is greater than 12 km.
D. SiRT only works for SRDF/A.
Answer: A

13.A customer is running SRDF/A single session mode. They want to change into SRDF/S mode after nightly periods of high write activity have completed. The switch to synchronous mode failed. What is a potential cause for this failure?
A. SRDF/S cycle switching feature is not enabled.
B. Mode change feature is only supported with Concurrent SRDF.
C. SDRF/A write cache is not enabled at the remote site.
D. Fifty percent or more of SRDF/A write cache is in use on the target Symmetrix.
Answer: D

14.A customer is implementing a new SRDF/S environment with DMX arrays. The primary and secondary data centers are 20 kilometers apart.
Which consideration is needed for planning, designing, and implementing a synchronous solution?
A. Ensure that the application can tolerate the additional latency
B. Ensure that adequate cache on the arrays is allocated
C. Ensure that the RAID configuration is identical on both arrays
D. Ensure that there is twice the recommended amount of bandwidth
Answer: A

15.A customer is planning to implement SRDF/S into their environment. The customer wants zero data loss if they lose their primary data center (R1). The distance is 1,000 miles, and the customer would like to maintain an application response time of 10 ms.
Which design would you implement?
A. SRDF/AR single-hop
B. SRDF/AR multi-hop
C. SRDF/DM
D. SRDF/S with adaptive copy initially
Answer: B

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Latest EMC E20-515 Dumps

Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects: E20-515 Exam

  • E20-515 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: E20-515
  • Exam Name: Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Technology Architects
  • Q & A: 95 Q&As

1.An SRDF failover operation has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation.
What is theexpected statusof R1 and R2 devicesafter performing an SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Answer: B

2.An SRDF failover operation on has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation.
What is the expected status of the R1 andR2devices after performing an SRDF failover operation.?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Write Disabled; R2 Read/Write
C. R1 Read/Write; R2 Read/Write
D. R1 Read/Write; R2 Write Disabled
Answer: B

3.What is a benefit of using TimeFinder/Snap?
A. Mainframe dataset level copies
B. Ultra high BCV availability
C. Full volume copies for high performance and availability
D. Extremely small recovery point objectives without the cost of full copies
Answer: D

4.Tike to create a point-in-time copy of their data ID be used by a performance-sensitive application
The customer would like to access that point-in-time copy at 3 A M. The amount of time required to copy the data from the source to targetis60 minutes.
Which time finder/clone solution you recommend?
A. Create a clone session with the copy option at or before 2AM
B. Activate the clone session at 3 A M Create a clone session with the.nocopy option at or before 2 AM.
C. Create a clone session with the precopy option at or before 2AM activate the clone session at 3 AM.
D. Create and activate a done session with Die background copy option at 3 A M
Answer: C

5.A customer would like to create a point-in-time copy of their data to be used by a performance-sensitive application. The customer would like to access that point-in-time copy at 3 A M.The amount of time required to copy the copy the data from the source to the target is 60 minutes. Which Time finder/Clone solution would you recommend?
A. Create a clone session with the copy option at or before 2 A.M. activate the clone session at 3 A.M.
B. Create a clone session with the no copy option at or before 2 A.M.
C. Create a clone session with the precopy option at or before 2 A.M. Activatethe clone session at 3 A.M.
D. Create and activate a clone session with the background copy option at 3 A.M.
Answer: C

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